B
Big_Dummy
Guest
I used the word “sin” in the meaning of fallacy or error. And, your methology is in fact a fallacy or error of intertextuality known as parallelomania to be specific.It’s not a “sin” at all. It’s a basic element of traditional Christian and Jewish practice (your appeal to Jewish tradition is obviously very selective).
Did the evangelist Mark “sin” when he not only mixed a quote from Malachi with one from Isaiah but attributed the combined quotation to Isaiah alone? (Mark 1:2-3)
Edwin
Older outdated scholarship places the date that the book of Wisdom before the time of Christ, but Recent, more uptodate Scholarship places the date of it being written after the time of Jesus’ death & resurrection.
The Dictionary of the Old Testament: wisdom, poetry & writings By Tremper Longman, Peter Enns (page 885-886) places its date durling the reign of Gaius Caligula (AD 37-41) which is after the events in Matthew 27 – See also The Exodus Story in the Wisdom of Solomon: a study in biblical interpretation By Samuel Cheon 151 which is recorded in The interpretation of Exodus: studies in honour of Cornelis Houtman By C. Houtman, Riemer Roukema, Klaas Spronk page 98 see also on page 93 note 48. Allusion and meaning in John 6 By Susan Hylen for a few other scholars, sources.