Where in scripture is it written?

[guanophore]

These questions were moved from another thread where they were off topic.

Part 1

What i’m asking for is where can i find the infallible interpretation of a verse or passage? Where can that be found?

The scriptures warn that false teachers would come into the church and decieve many. Also keep in mind that Christ never promised the church it would be protected from error.

Where in scripture for example is it written that God gave the catholic church the authority to interpret scripture?

If it has this authority then why has it not interpreted the entire Bible for catholics?

Is the Bible alone inspired-inerrant? If not, what else is?

 

[VociMike]

Originally Posted by justasking4
Part 1

What i’m asking for is where can i find the infallible interpretation of a verse or passage? Where can that be found?

The Church is not in the business of providing infallible interpretations of verses or passages. The Church is in the business of guarding and passing along the entire deposit of faith it has received from God. In doing that, the Church has made many infallible declarations of doctrine and dogma, and often these declarations result in an effective, if not formal, infallible interpretation of some portion of scripture. The verses on Baptism and the Real Presence are examples.

The scriptures warn that false teachers would come into the church and decieve many. Also keep in mind that Christ never promised the church it would be protected from error.

Yes, the scriptures did warn us about the Reformers.

But you’re wrong that the Church was not promised that it would be protected from error. The power to bind and loose heaven is exactly such a promise.

Where in scripture for example is it written that God gave the catholic church the authority to interpret scripture?

Again, the power to bind and loose, and the promise that the Church would be led into all truth, is a verification of that authority.

If it has this authority then why has it not interpreted the entire Bible for catholics?

Again, because the Church is not in the business of interpreting the entire bible for Catholics. The Church is in the larger business of preserving, defending, teaching and passing along the entire deposit of faith, and this she has done. That includes the bible but is not limited to the bible.

Is the Bible alone inspired-inerrant? If not, what else is?

The Church. In particular, the Magisterium.

 

[Subrosa]

Ok, I’ll take a shot at some of them.

These questions were moved from another thread where they were off topic.

Originally Posted by justasking4
Part 1

*What i’m asking for is where can i find the infallible interpretation of a verse or passage? Where can that be found? *

In Matthew 4 there is a curious passage…

5 Then the devil took him to the holy city, and made him stand on the parapet of the temple, 6 and said to him, “If you are the Son of God, throw yourself down. For it is written: 'He will command his angels concerning you and ‘with their hands they will support you, lest you dash your foot against a stone.’” 7 Jesus answered him, “Again it is written, ‘You shall not put the Lord, your God, to the test.’”

Here we see that Satan can interpret scripture. It is obviously a deceit because Jesus sees through it and instantly extinguishes it. So how can we be reassured of accurate and true interpretations?

Consistancy! A constant, unchanging message is a way to know. It is how we prove that the sun comes up every morning. We can not know of it’s arrival with forethought but only for it’s history. We know that it has been there for millions of years and therefore can conclude it’s arrival.

The message of the Church has been consistant throughout it’s history. It has been unchanging. It is as predictable as the sun coming up every morning.
*

Where in scripture for example is it written that God gave the catholic church the authority to interpret scripture?

1 Timothy all of chapter 3 and 2 Peter 1:20-21. These passages speak of church authority and truth, along with interpretation not being a human asset. Join this with passages such as 2 Timothy 6 “*For this reason, I remind you to stir into flame the gift of God that you have through the imposition of my hands” *and Acts 19:6 "And when Paul laid (his) hands on them, the holy Spirit came upon them, and they spoke in tongues and prophesied.", we get the picture that the a Gift if the Spirit, interpretation, is the job of the Holy Spirit which resides in the church.
*

If it has this authority then why has it not interpreted the entire Bible for catholics?

No need. The truth also resides in Apostolic Tradition and is a practice of the faith.

Is the Bible alone inspired-inerrant? If not, what else is?

*Apostolic tradition is also the Word of God. Consider this…the first written Christian scripture is 1 Thessalonians. This letter was written before all the other New Testament documents including the gospels. Let’s have a look at chapter 1, verses 5 and 6…

5 For our gospel did not come to you in word alone, but also in power and in the holy Spirit and (with) much conviction. You know what sort of people we were (among) you for your sake. 6 And you became imitators of us and of the Lord, receiving the word in great affliction, with joy from the holy Spirit,

Paul evangelized this community without written gospels. While any card-carrying Protestant will immediately aver that the “word” in verse 5 is the written word of God, it cannot be because they did not yet exist. In verse 6 Paul admonishes the new Christian community to become “imitators of himself and the Lord…” The only way that they had was to follow Paul’s established Traditions. We know this because Paul tells them so in his second letter to the Thessalonians chapter 2, verse 15…“Therefore, brothers, stand firm and hold fast to the traditions that you were taught, either by an oral statement or by a letter of ours.”

Knowing this it becomes evident that both Tradition and scripture are equal partners.

Subrosa

 

[andzy]

If it has this authority then why has it not interpreted the entire Bible for catholics?

A more serious question is: if the Bible is “interpreting” itself, then why does the Bible not fully explain itself (otherwise there would not be so much disagreement amongst Protestants regarding the salvation, meanings of sacraments, etc, etc.)?
The Catholic Church is here alive and can (and does) guide and explain to us important matters of faith. The Bible, however, does not verbally announce us all the necessary things we should believe in today’s world.

 

[NotWorthy]

Just look at the canonization of the Bible and you see the dilemna with Sola Scriptura.

Romans, Hebrews, and Revelations were long thought not to be inspired, for centuries if I’m correct. Meanwhile, the Shepherd of Hermes and Clement’s letter to the Corinthians were thought to be inspired by a majority of Christians for several centuries.

What do you do as a Church? Do you wait til these books are agreed upon as being canonical to form your Church Dogmas and Doctrines. If so, the Church certianly wouldn’t have waited 370 years to do this?

 

[MarcoPolo]

If it has this authority then why has it not interpreted the entire Bible for catholics?

As to this question, I would simply say that God reveals His plan in stages, from the Old Testament to the New Testament. It is a non sequitur to insist the fullness must be revealed in our time at once. A good microchosm of this is when Jesus took two attempts to heal a blind man, letting him see more each time.

Secondly, here is an explanation by Jimmy Akin about Scripture interpretations. In it you can also find seven passages about which the Church has made definite interpretations.