Where is the Bible against sex out of wedlock?

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bluerose said:
The Bible condemns fornication. Fornication is sex outside of marriage.
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Some versions of the bible translate fornication from the Greek word porneia, which does not necessarily mean fornication - sexual immorality is another translation that is used in other versions of the bible.
 
dprewett said:
The ten comandments
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If you are referring to the commandment about adultery, that is between a married person and a person that is not the married person’s spouse. But what if neither are married? There is not a 10 commandment about that.
 
larsegarots said:
If you are referring to the commandment about adultery, that is between a married person and a person that is not the married person’s spouse. But what if neither are married? There is not a 10 commandment about that.
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Fornication (which is explicitly condemned many places in the Bible) is sex outside of wedlock. Also, fornication is sexual immorality, so those biblical citations directly apply.

"Flee from sexual immorality. All other sins a man commits are outside his body, but he who sins sexually sins against his own body. Do you not know that your body is a temple of the Holy Spirit, who is in you, whom you have received from God? You are not your own; you were bought at a price. Therefore honor God “with your body.” (1 Corinthians 6:18-20)
"But if they cannot control themselves, they should marry, for it is “better to marry than to burn with passion.” (1 Corinthians 7:8-9)
“But the cowardly, the unbelieving, the vile, the murderers, the sexually immoral, those who practice magic arts, the idolaters and all liars-- their place will be in the fiery lake of burning sulfur. This is the second death.” (Revelation 21:8)
“Marriage should be honored by all, and the marriage bed kept pure, for God will judge the adulterer and all the sexually immoral.” (Hebrews 13:4)
 
Many passages condemn “fornication”. See here.
Also, the other are correct, the Bible is not an exhaustive account of God’s revelation, so if extra-marital sex is condemned in the Tradition of the Church, which it is, then it is immoral. The Spirit has guided the Church, as promised, and identified sex outside of marriage as a mortal sin.
 
MarcoPolo said:
Many passages condemn “fornication”. See here.
Also, the other are correct, the Bible is not an exhaustive account of God’s revelation, so if extra-marital sex is condemned in the Tradition of the Church, which it is, then it is immoral. The Spirit has guided the Church, as promised, and identified sex outside of marriage as a mortal sin.
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I’m not arguing whether or not sex out of wedlock is moral or immoral.

I’m trying to determine if sex out of wedlock is specifically mentioned in the bible. Versus that just refer to ‘sexual immorality’ would not convince someone its a sin if that person that thinks sex out of wedlock is not immoral.

The verses mentioning ‘fornication’ were translated from the Greek word ‘porneia’, which doesn’t necessarily mean fornication, but rather ‘sexual immorality’.

I’ll state again, I’m not arguing that sex out of wedlock is moral - I’m just trying to determine if the bible specifically mentions sex out of wedlock.
 
I have found that the bible speaks out against married women have extramarital sex than any thing else. It seems men even married often had sex with women not married. Especially with slaves or those taken in battle. But of course in the bible poligamy was also ok. I guess we must trust the church on this one.
 
Deuteronomy 22:13-29 contains various precepts against sex out of wedlock, including adultery and fornication. Deuteronomy 22:28-29 contains an explicit precept against fornication, which is to be “punished” by indissoluble marriage.
 
Todd_Easton said:
Deuteronomy 22:28-29 contains an explicit precept against fornication, which is to be “punished” by indissoluble marriage.
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Are you referring to the verse that says if a man rapes a virgin woman, then pays her father 50 shekels of silver, she is forced to marry him, and they can never divorce? That doesn’t sound like sexual morality to me.

Deuteronomy 22:28-29:
“If a man finds a girl who is a virgin, who is not engaged, and seizes her and lies with her and they are discovered, then the man who lay with her shall give to the girl’s father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall become his wife because he has violated her; he cannot divorce her all his days.”
 
Genesis 2:24.

“That is why a man leaves his father and mother and clings to his wife, and the two of them become one flesh.”

Just how many “partners” can you become “one” flesh with? It’s not something you can spread around.
 
ricmat said:
Genesis 2:24.

“That is why a man leaves his father and mother and clings to his wife, and the two of them become one flesh.”

Just how many “partners” can you become “one” flesh with? It’s not something you can spread around.
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That’s the verse I was thinking of. The logical conclusion of this verse, which Jesus endorsed, is that one is ONLY permitted to ‘become one flesh’ (have sexual relations) with one’s marital partner, since God’s plan doesn’t permit of any other variations with one or multiple unmarried partners.
 
But this verse still says nothing of sex between those not married or a married man and an unmarried woman. He is one with his wife for the sake of family and supporting of the children. I believe we get the morality of marriage through church tradition which always comes from christ. This is the proplem with sola scriptura. Much of christs teachings could never have been written down in a as short a space as the New Testimat.
 
larsegarots said:
Are you referring to the verse that says if a man rapes a virgin woman, then pays her father 50 shekels of silver, she is forced to marry him, and they can never divorce? That doesn’t sound like sexual morality to me.

Deuteronomy 22:28-29:
“If a man finds a girl who is a virgin, who is not engaged, and seizes her and lies with her and they are discovered, then the man who lay with her shall give to the girl’s father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall become his wife because he has violated her; he cannot divorce her all his days.”
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The text is a bit ambiguous as to whether the act described is rape or consentual sex. Since it says, “they are discovered,” I think the text is describing consentual sex.

The NAB version, which I used originally, seems to imply consentual sex:: If a man comes upon a maiden that is not betrothed, takes her and has relations with her, and their deed is discovered, the man who had relations with her shall pay the girl’s father fifty silver shekels and take her as his wife, because he has deflowered her. Moreover, he may not divorce her as long as he lives.
 
Todd_Easton said:
The text is a bit ambiguous as to whether the act described is rape or consentual sex. Since it says, “they are discovered,” I think the text is describing consentual sex.

The NAB version, which I used originally, seems to imply consentual sex:: If a man comes upon a maiden that is not betrothed, takes her and has relations with her, and their deed is discovered, the man who had relations with her shall pay the girl’s father fifty silver shekels and take her as his wife, because he has deflowered her. Moreover, he may not divorce her as long as he lives.
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Good point. If you compare and contrast the episodes in Genesis of the rape of Dinah, and Judah’s mutually consensual relations with his widowed daughter-in-law Tamar (although he didn’t know her identity at the time) there is a distinct difference in how consensual sex was viewed as opposed to rape.

I don’t think, somehow, that Dinah’s brothers would’ve been satisfied merely with her assailant (or chief assailant - can’t remember if there were more than one) marrying her.
 
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