Which Bible version is closest to the original?

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Who in the Church? Translations are imperfect, otherwise you’d get the same translation every time from every translator. Trustworthiness is not the issue but authenticity is. And this is achieved best with a side-by-side with an original or with several translations, IMO.
You might also consider a parallel bible which would have the text from several translations side by side. The thing to remember is that it is a translation and not the original text. Also, grammar is much different today than it was in the originals so even a strict word for word translation would be very difficult to read. If you stick with the major modern Catholic editions (and remember that footnotes are study helps, not inspired text) like the Jerusalem/New Jerusalem, NAB/NABRE, RSV/NRSV Catholic Edition you will be fine and you will not have to worry about not having all the books in the Catholic canon.
 
It is true that most NT writers used one or more of the known forms of the Septuagint - or rather, the Old Greek. However, they do not always quote it - there are cases when writers will use a non-Septuagintal quote (for example, a translation from the Hebrew text - quite common in Matthew, for example), or a combination, or - when the extant texts do not meet their needs - hermeneutically alter the passage.

There are in fact different versions of the Septuagint. Limiting ourselves to the pre-Christian versions, there is, first and foremost, the Old Greek (OG), which is the ‘original’. Between the original production of the LXX and the Greek versions of the 2nd century there were two early revisions. The earlier, dating from perhaps the 1st century BC, is called “proto-Lucian” because it shares characteristics with the revision attributed to Lucian of Antioch (4th century AD). It is called proto-Lucian because some of the readings it shares with the later Lucianic recension are reflected in both Josephus (1st century) and the Vetus Latina (2nd century). This revision represents a sporadic correction of the Old Greek toward the Palestinian textual family represented by the three texts of Samuel found at Qumran.

The later revision is called the Kaige after its habit of rendering the Hebrew word Hebrew ו)גם) “and also” as kai ge. It dates to the late 1st century BC or the early 1st century AD and its overall character is seen as a revision of the Old Greek in the direction of conformity with the ancestor of the Masoretic text. The revision is noted for its use of stock renderings of particular Hebrew words and phrases (of which kai ge is one) that seem to be chosen primarily to give Greek readers a sense of what was in the original Hebrew, with little concern for whether the resulting translation was idiomatic Greek. A Kaige text which shows close relation to another revision of the Septuagint attributed to Theodotion (end of 2nd century) is called Kaige-Theodotion (Kaige-Th): the 1st-century Minor Prophets scroll from Naḥal Ḥever (8ḤevXII gr) is a Kaige-Th text. The extremely-literal Greek translation produced by Aquila of Sinope (ca. AD 140) was apparently influenced by Kaige-Th and is the fullest expression of the tendency to harmonize the Greek with the Hebrew. Theodotion’s version was somewhat later than Aquila’s, and his Greek is freer than Aquila’s stilted literalness. His religious affiliation is in doubt, but his version became popular with Christians, to the point that the rendering of Daniel attributed to him even came to replace the Old Greek version in the Church’s Greek OT.

The reason I brought this up is, whenever the book of Revelation cites from Daniel it always seems to quote Theodotion rather than the Old Greek. Since Revelation is usually dated to the last decade of the 1st century, you have the anomaly of a 1st century work citing a 2nd century version. Scholars have answered this by either proposing that Revelation uses a Kaige-Th version of Daniel or that the translation of Daniel attributed to Theodotion is actually not related to either proto-Theodotion or the traditional (2nd century AD) Theodotion, but is in fact a new translation of the Hebrew-Aramaic portions of the original book with some knowledge of Old Greek Daniel.
Wasn’t Revelation in the TR [Erasmus] more or less taken from a late hand printed commentary and not an early original? I may be wrong, but Erasmus didn’t have a copy of the Apocalypse and had to borrow the commentary from a colleague of his.
 
Wasn’t Revelation in the TR [Erasmus] more or less taken from a late hand printed commentary and not an early original? I may be wrong, but Erasmus didn’t have a copy of the Apocalypse and had to borrow the commentary from a colleague of his.
Erasmus could not find a complete Greek copy of Revelation near him, so what he did was back-translate the last six verses from the Vulgate Revelation into Greek.
 
Erasmus could not find a complete Greek copy of Revelation near him, so what he did was back-translate the last six verses from the Vulgate Revelation into Greek.
Yes, but wasn’t that copy no more than a variety of passages taken from a hand copied commentary on the Apocalypse; and, not an early witness to S. John’s Revelation? I have completely forgotten where I had picked that tidbit up. What is the oldest textual witness to the Apocalypse in either Greek or Latin?
 
It is true that most NT writers used one or more of the known forms of the Septuagint - or rather, the Old Greek. However, they do not always quote it - there are cases when writers will use a non-Septuagintal quote (for example, a translation from the Hebrew text - quite common in Matthew, for example), or a combination, or - when the extant texts do not meet their needs - hermeneutically alter the passage.
I remember reading and excerpt of what I believe was referred to as Hebrew Matthew. It was a lengthy passage translated by St Jerome in a letter to the Pope. After reading it, I wondered if Hebrew Matthew was the Q that everyone borrowed from.
 
Wow, thank you all for the answers to my question. Maybe it doesn’t really matter too much which Bible am reading, only that I keep in mind the churches take on it.

I converted to Catholicism in 1999, I was brought up in a very non religious family, when I had my own children it became more important that I bring them up in faith. I was first confirmed in 1994 when my youngest son was 14, this was in a Protestant church. All my 4 children have been through and still are in Catholic schools. I spent far more time in our Catholic church than in the original one I attended. That was when I decided to convert.

I am now kind of finding myself again having just been through First Holy Communion with my youngest son. I am enjoying relearning about my faith and have lots of questions, so I will apologise now before bombarding you with them.

Thanks again, much appreciated.

Penny
Highly recommend the St Ignatius Study Bible…NT only…because of the Catholic Commentary.
 
Yes, but wasn’t that copy no more than a variety of passages taken from a hand copied commentary on the Apocalypse; and, not an early witness to S. John’s Revelation? I have completely forgotten where I had picked that tidbit up. What is the oldest textual witness to the Apocalypse in either Greek or Latin?
The oldest manuscripts of Revelation are Papyrus 47 and Papyrus 115 from the 3rd century. Since they are well, fragmentary, our main sources for Revelation would be the 4th-5th century uncials like Codex Sinaiticus or Codex Alexandrinus. (I don’t know about the Latin.) None of these were available in Erasmus’ time.
 
I remember reading and excerpt of what I believe was referred to as Hebrew Matthew. It was a lengthy passage translated by St Jerome in a letter to the Pope.
According to Eusebius, the 2nd-century writer Papias wrote (basing himself on the oral tradition he had received from “the presbyters/the elders,” particularly “John the Elder”) that Matthew “collected the sayings (of or about Jesus - logia in Greek) in the Hēbraidi dialektō, and each one interpreted them as best he could.” What the phrase Hēbraidi dialektō exactly means isn’t very clear (does it mean the “Hebrew language” - note that ‘Hebrew’ here just means ‘the language of the Hebrews’ and could mean either the language we now call Hebrew or even Aramaic - or a “Hebrew style” of writing?), but the Fathers after Papias interpreted it as Matthew originally writing his gospel in the ‘Hebrew’ language, usually connecting this elusive Logia (now dubbed the Gospel according to the Hebrews, among other names) with the canonical Greek Matthew.

Some of them - like Jerome - even believed that this ‘Hebrew’ text was preserved to their own day and thus quoted from text(s) they believed to be the genuine article. The problem is, many quoted portions do not agree with each other - they were more likely actually quoting different gospels which happened to share the same characteristics in that they were all used by different Jewish Christian groups and were all apparently versions of Matthew’s gospel.
After reading it, I wondered if Hebrew Matthew was the Q that everyone borrowed from.
The original version/s of the two-source hypothesis (aka Q theory) were actually based on Papias’ mention of Matthew’s logia (in fact, even today in German, Q is still sometimes known as the Logienquelle).
 
According to Eusebius, the 2nd-century writer Papias wrote (basing himself on the oral tradition he had received from “the presbyters/the elders,” particularly “John the Elder”) that Matthew “collected the sayings (of or about Jesus - logia in Greek) in the Hēbraidi dialektō, and each one interpreted them as best he could.” What the phrase Hēbraidi dialektō exactly means isn’t very clear (does it mean the “Hebrew language” - note that ‘Hebrew’ here just means ‘the language of the Hebrews’ and could mean either the language we now call Hebrew or even Aramaic - or a “Hebrew style” of writing?), but the Fathers after Papias interpreted it as Matthew originally writing his gospel in the ‘Hebrew’ language, usually connecting this elusive Logia (now dubbed the Gospel according to the Hebrews, among other names) with the canonical Greek Matthew.

Some of them - like Jerome - even believed that this ‘Hebrew’ text was preserved to their own day and thus quoted from text(s) they believed to be the genuine article. The problem is, many quoted portions do not agree with each other - they were more likely actually quoting different gospels which happened to share the same characteristics in that they were all used by different Jewish Christian groups and were all apparently versions of Matthew’s gospel.

The original version/s of the two-source hypothesis (aka Q theory) were actually based on Papias’ mention of Matthew’s logia (in fact, even today in German, Q is still sometimes known as the Logienquelle).
Thanks for the information!
 
I have a Revised Standard Version - Catholic Edition. But today I just bought the Second Edition. It has gotten really good reviews (better than the first edition), and I love the cover. 🙂 Plus, it is easier to read and apparently has some good footnotes. I plan on buying the Ignatius Study Bible NT soon. I also got Catholicism for Dummies - which I hope is worth the money.

Good luck on your Bible shopping! Lots to choose from. 🙂
 
I have a Revised Standard Version - Catholic Edition. But today I just bought the Second Edition. It has gotten really good reviews (better than the first edition), and I love the cover. 🙂 Plus, it is easier to read and apparently has some good footnotes. I plan on buying the Ignatius Study Bible NT soon. I also got Catholicism for Dummies - which I hope is worth the money.

Good luck on your Bible shopping! Lots to choose from. 🙂
Thank you, I have Catholicism for Dummies and really find it useful.

Thanks for the replies, very interesting to read about everyone’s choices of the Bible. Penny
 
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