Which one: Catholicism and Orthodoxy?

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In what sense? Just because of Rome? Because on practically any other point I think it’s the other way round–and of course the patristic witness on Petrine succession is pretty confusing and complicated. The patristic acknowledgment of Roman primacy, however, is much clearer.

But the general theology and ethos of the Orthodox Church seems much more like that of the Fathers than that of the Western Church does–which is why many of your Communion have accused the Orthodox of “stagnation.” That really amounts to an admission that the East looks a lot more like the first-millennium Church than the West does!

Edwin
1st Paragraph in quote: On other points I think they support the Catholic Church as well, but I suppose it depends on what ECF you look at. 🤷

2nd Paragraph: I disagree bcuz many in my communion don’t really care or know about the Orthodox because I’m in the ELCA. ;)😦 Of course, as you can tell, I don’t want to be.
 
Fair enough.

But it is up to the individual in Orthodoxy to decide whether the Synod of Jerusalem is authoritative or not authoritative?
Sort of. Jerusalem didn’t really define anything doctrinally. It was really just an answer to the reformation and counter-reformation going on in Western Europe. Its status as a local synod and some perceived Westernizations in the council has caused many bishops and other clergy to hold it as not being authoritative. Therefore, while it is ok to have the opinion that it is authoritative, the de facto assumption seems to be that it is not. It is rather infrequently referenced, unlike the hesychast councils, or the Seven Ecumenical Councils. Timer will likely tell if the Orthodox Church accepts or rejects it as being authoritative on the level of the whole Church.
 
Sort of. Jerusalem didn’t really define anything doctrinally. It was really just an answer to the reformation and counter-reformation going on in Western Europe. Its status as a local synod and some perceived Westernizations in the council has caused many bishops and other clergy to hold it as not being authoritative. Therefore, while it is ok to have the opinion that it is authoritative, the de facto assumption seems to be that it is not. It is rather infrequently referenced, unlike the hesychast councils, or the Seven Ecumenical Councils. Timer will likely tell if the Orthodox Church accepts or rejects it as being authoritative on the level of the whole Church.
But if it is up to each individual, then I suppose it’s really not authoritative, is it? Because “authoritative” implies exactly that, no?- it’s not optional.
 
That makes him a heretic, not a pagan.

That is irrelevant, as he reigned during Constantine’s reign.

Firstly, that’s Constantius II. Secondly, he tolerated these things, but he himself was Christian. How can you call Constantine who tolerated Christianity a pagan when by the same faulty logic you’re using here, he would have been a Christian is a mystery.

Yes.

Hey, wait a minute you claimed that there were multiple pagan emperors, which was what I was correcting. Why are you deflecting by talking about heretic emperors.

So which one was it? Was he a pagan or an Arian heretic? Make up your mind (hint, he was an Arian).

More off topic stuff that has nothing to do with the multiple pagan Emperors you mentioned.

Be careful what you stir up because this is not unique the East, it happened with your papacy as well. If that ius your criterion for determining which church is true, then none of them are true. Basically, you can’t even admit that you were mistaken when you talked about pagan emperors (when there was only one), so what is the point in trying to hold dialogue?
You do realize Constantine is considered a saint don’t you? There are many icons of him, and his mother St. Helen…
 
You do realize Constantine is considered a saint don’t you? There are many icons of him, and his mother St. Helen…
Of course. That he was baptized by Arians doesn’t undo the tremendous things he did for the Church.
 
But if it is up to each individual, then I suppose it’s really not authoritative, is it? Because “authoritative” implies exactly that, no?- it’s not optional.
That’s why I said that the de facto assumption is that it’s not authoritative. Some people personally believe so, but unless the whole Church comes to believe so, its authority is effectively nothing. That may sound like a scary way to do things, but it certainly worked with the hesychast councils and also with the issue of iconoclasm, which wasn’t solved for a century or so after Nicaea II (because of the second iconoclasm).
 
That’s why I said that the de facto assumption is that it’s not authoritative. Some people personally believe so, but unless the whole Church comes to believe so, its authority is effectively nothing. That may sound like a scary way to do things, but it certainly worked with the hesychast councils and also with the issue of iconoclasm, which wasn’t solved for a century or so after Nicaea II (because of the second iconoclasm).
It does sound scary, considering virtually every council has been rejected by some in the church, indeed at times even leading to schism, yet the authoritativeness of the councils did not lie in wait, pending the acceptance of everyone. Indeed, had that been the case, it would be hard to imagine how/why any schism should result from the teaching of an ecumenical council at all. Afterall, wouldn’t the teaching be non-binding and lack any authority until everyone accepted it, even if it took 1,500 years?
 
Of course. That he was baptized by Arians doesn’t undo the tremendous things he did for the Church.
Interesting. A few questions:
  1. In Eastern Orthodoxy, is baptism considered always necessary or usually necessary for salvation?
  2. Would an individual baptized nowadays by Jehovah’s Witnesses, i.e., present-day Arians, be absolutely required to get soaked if entering Eastern Orthodoxy–like a Muslim or Hindu in the same circumstances?
  3. How can an adult baptized by heretics be considered a saint when he may–given that Constantine could conceivably have asked orthodox Christians to do the job–have shared their view of Christ as a creature?
 
That’s why I said that the de facto assumption is that it’s not authoritative. Some people personally believe so, but unless the whole Church comes to believe so, its authority is effectively nothing. That may sound like a scary way to do things, but it certainly worked with the hesychast councils and also with the issue of iconoclasm, which wasn’t solved for a century or so after Nicaea II (because of the second iconoclasm).
But should ordinary laity unprotected by Christ’s promises to his church of infallibility be allowed to determine the veracity of a council’s teachings?

Imagine this scenario: (1) such a gathering takes place in the American state of Massachusetts concerning the morality of artificial contraception; (2) the attending Catholic bishops vote in favour of lifting all restrictions on the practice; and (3) the laity of the world–after being surveyed by professional researchers–unsurprisingly turn out to agree in overwhelming numbers with the conclusions just reached. Would average observers then be justified in believing that artificial contraception–under Eastern Orthodox ecclesiology–was entirely acceptable? Or would the inevitable rejection of this council among the African and Asian laity cancel out the opinions of their Western brethren?
 
But should ordinary laity unprotected by Christ’s promises to his church of infallibility be allowed to determine the veracity of a council’s teachings?

Imagine this scenario: (1) such a gathering takes place in the American state of Massachusetts concerning the morality of artificial contraception; (2) the attending Catholic bishops vote in favour of lifting all restrictions on the practice; and (3) the laity of the world–after being surveyed by professional researchers–unsurprisingly turn out to agree in overwhelming numbers with the conclusions just reached. Would average observers then be justified in believing that artificial contraception–under Eastern Orthodox ecclesiology–was entirely acceptable? Or would the inevitable rejection of this council among the African and Asian laity cancel out the opinions of their Western brethren?
I believe he says that it would have to be accepted by the whole church to be binding and authoritative, so in the scenario you presented, then that teaching of the hypothetical Massachusetts Council would not be authoritative…At least if I follow your scenario properly that’s the answer.

My own question would be if we should not consider all the Ecumenical Councils that did not receive universal support to be binding or authoritaive.
 
You and your kin (those stuck between Judah and Israel) should storm heaven with prayers for union- Tell the Theotokos that you can’t bear to be away from the church- or to be forced to decide who is right (in order to choose) when the two giants seem unable to resolve the issues themselves! 🤷 Tell her to perform a miracle so outstanding that it’ll confound the prideful men in the hierarchies and force them to do the right thing in-spite of themselves. If union ever happens, my friend, it’ll be by divine intervention or heavenly mirace.
I like how you suggest steps I’ve already taken–great minds think alike. 🙂 Clearly we haven’t seen this great miracle take place yet. If it ever materializes, perhaps even Richard Dawkins and Sam Harris could conceivably be converted (that would be one thing I’d want to still be around for!).

The divisions within Christianity, particularly among apostolic Christians, haven’t been doing much for my faith either. The present state of affairs is absolutely scandalous. One question I’m dying to ask God: “Why did you let the Chalcedonian and Great Schisms come about?” Discernment is so much more difficult: even on this forum, we have people of goodwill taking a flight to Rome, catching a ship to Constantinople, and hopping on a train to Alexandria–all on the basis of one set of historical facts (though the equivalent quality of the research done can’t be assumed). It’s rather cruel of God to expect us to figure out on our own which of the three apostolic churches was founded by Christ. To contemplate how our souls are being put on the line by the ultimate choice we make is frightening, despite knowing that the Old Man Upstairs™ is loving and merciful. But if it doesn’t really matter, then we might as well just let ourselves sink into the mind-numbing swamp of indifferentism as the rest of society has done.
Though I should say, my friend- you need the sacraments- so at some point you’ll have to make a decision, even if a best guess one. 🤷 You can never come to 100% resolution on one side, it’ll have to be 60, 70, 80% kinda thing.
Being away from the sacraments is a thoroughly unpleasant experience: I wouldn’t wish it on anyone. What complicates things even further is that, if the Eastern Orthodox are right, Catholic sacraments are defective: the communion elements remain bread and wine, and sins won’t be duly absolved by the priest after the penitant’s confession. Heaven help us.
 
I am not saying to ignore the intellectual component. I am saying that you can not rely on it entirely here. The historical debate and polemic between both sides can be very convincing depending on what source or what person you talk to (though admittedly I think the Orthodox conception of history on the issue is more correct but that is my personal bias). This sort of life decision has to be made on the basis of Grace and discernment, not polemical arguments or even on the basis of the delicious potlucks (which would be an even harder way of deciding then the historical arguments :D). You have to read, pray, visit, and discern. Trust in God, avoid approaching it from an uncharitable or legalistic manner, and I am certain you will find where God wants you to go.
You make good points. What has led you to believe that the Eastern Orthodox view of history is the most plausible?

And, as you recommend, I’m hoping to attend an Eastern Orthodox liturgy this week with a Reformed friend… as well as check out a Maronite “Mass”* with a Catholic acquaintance… chat with an informed Latin Catholic, Eastern Catholic, and Eastern Orthodox… and finally throw a huge party–the music blasted at a mind-numbing volume–for Christians of all varieties to come and forget about the big questions for a few hours. 😛

I should really get off CAF and grab some sleep. This is getting ridiculous. See you all later. Maybe the rapture will happen before noon and we won’t have to deal with Catholic-Eastern Orthodox-Oriental Orthodox-Protestant infighting.

*Latinization has apparently set down firm roots, at least in the Maronite parish in this city–the person I corresponded with by e-mail noticeably didn’t employ the term “divine liturgy” at all.
 
It does sound scary, considering virtually every council has been rejected by some in the church, indeed at times even leading to schism, yet the authoritativeness of the councils did not lie in wait, pending the acceptance of everyone. Indeed, had that been the case, it would be hard to imagine how/why any schism should result from the teaching of an ecumenical council at all. Afterall, wouldn’t the teaching be non-binding and lack any authority until everyone accepted it, even if it took 1,500 years?
But the idea that councils are immediately authoritative doesn’t match too well with history. There is absolutely no set of criteria which guarantees that a council will be authoritative. Some Orthodox have (incorrectly) put forth the idea that an Ecumenical Council must be called by the Emperor and approved by the patriarchs of all of the Churches. Catholics like to say that an Ecumenical Council must be universal amongst the Church and approved by a pope.

Both sets of criteria can easily be discredited by the unusual events of the Councils concerning Patriarch Photius. Both the council of 869 and the council of 879 were called by an emperor and received papal and patriarchal approval, yet the Catholic Church rejects that the council of 879 is Ecumenical (largely because of an accident of history; the Catholic Church preserved the acts of Constantinople 869, which contained a canon which would help end the investiture controversy), while the Orthodox Church rejects the council of 869, saying that the council of 879 abrogated it (accordingly, no acts of the 869 council exist in Greek, as they were destroyed after the council of 879 abrogated the council of 869). Who is right? Clearly the issue of what makes a council authoritative is more complicated than meeting a certain set of criteria.
But should ordinary laity unprotected by Christ’s promises to his church of infallibility be allowed to determine the veracity of a council’s teachings?

Imagine this scenario: (1) such a gathering takes place in the American state of Massachusetts concerning the morality of artificial contraception; (2) the attending Catholic bishops vote in favour of lifting all restrictions on the practice; and (3) the laity of the world–after being surveyed by professional researchers–unsurprisingly turn out to agree in overwhelming numbers with the conclusions just reached. Would average observers then be justified in believing that artificial contraception–under Eastern Orthodox ecclesiology–was entirely acceptable? Or would the inevitable rejection of this council among the African and Asian laity cancel out the opinions of their Western brethren?
No, it’s not like that at all. The Church is not a democracy (not even at the conciliar level), and the laity do not have that sort of authority. I did not mean to say that the laity have the ability to determine the authority of a council. It is a more of a mysterious thing than that. At times, the Church acts with one mind, and such events are seen to be a sign that the Spirit is guiding the Church.

The very notion that a council can be ‘infallible’ is a rather dangerous way to think of it. If we are to believe that councils only exist to clarify the faith of the Fathers, and not to create new teachings, then the notion of infallibility is a moot point, because it is the agreement of the council with the deposit of the faith (represented by the teachings which have been faithfully passed down by the body of the bishops who are successors of the Apostles) which confers any sort of infallibility to a council, not the council meeting some sort of magic criteria for infallibility. This is why we see, for example, the bishops at the Council of Chalcedon reading and agreeing with the Creed of Nicaea, the Creed of Constantinople and the Second Letter of Cyril to Nestorius: the bishops are simultaneously expressing their agreement with the documents, and also affirming (or rather reaffirming) that the documents are in accord with the faith of the Fathers and of the Apostles.

To answer your hypothetical question, we would have to wait and see. If we truly are to believe that the Holy Spirit will protect the Church from error, then we must let those issues play out over time. For the Orthodox, mob rule is just as an unacceptable style of governance as requiring the pope to give infallibility to a council, for sometimes those who were correct were in the minority (think Athanasius contra mundum or Maximus the Confessor), and sometimes those who were in power were in error (Nestorius, Honorius, and Sergius to name a few), but by the working of the Holy Spirit in the Church, the Truth managed to prevail.
 
Who is right? Clearly the issue of what makes a council authoritative is more complicated than meeting a certain set of criteria.
And clearly acceptance by the whole church is the foremost of those “criteria” that simply must not be true. Otherwise, we’d be forced to say that only about two councils have any shot at the binding and authoritative claim.
No, it’s not like that at all. The Church is not a democracy (not even at the conciliar level), and the laity do not have that sort of authority. I did not mean to say that the laity have the ability to determine the authority of a council. It is a more of a mysterious thing than that. At times, the Church acts with one mind, and such events are seen to be a sign that the Spirit is guiding the Church.
But if they have not that authority then they should not exercise it, and surely, the authoritativeness or lack thereof of a council should never be allowed to swing on the acceptance/non-acceptance of those that have no authority to determine that authoritativeness in the first place.
The very notion that a council can be ‘infallible’ is a rather dangerous way to think of it. If we are to believe that councils only exist to clarify the faith of the Fathers, and not to create new teachings, then the notion of infallibility is a moot point, because it is the agreement of the council with the deposit of the faith (represented by the teachings which have been faithfully passed down by the body of the bishops who are successors of the Apostles) which confers any sort of infallibility to a council,
This sounds eerily close to sola-scriptura arguments. You say that it’s true teaching that confers infallibilty, not divinely instituted and protected authority. I guess the question then is, who determines whether the council has agreed with the deposit of faith in its pronouncements, proclamations or teachings?
This is why we see, for example, the bishops at the Council of Chalcedon reading and agreeing with the Creed of Nicaea, the Creed of Constantinople and the Second Letter of Cyril to Nestorius: the bishops are simultaneously expressing their agreement with the documents, and also affirming (or rather reaffirming) that the documents are in accord with the faith of the Fathers and of the Apostles.
True. But all Heretics cited the fathers and scripture and claimed to be teaching in accordance with the deposit of faith. The citing of previous teaching does not mean that the Council’s authority is not infallible on the question of doctrine it determines on the sole basis of divine protection from teaching error. After all, any two people can read the same sources and conclude very different things, or we would not have the early Heresies regarding the very nature of God.
To answer your hypothetical question, we would have to wait and see. If we truly are to believe that the Holy Spirit will protect the Church from error, then we must let those issues play out over time. For the Orthodox, mob rule is just as an unacceptable style of governance as requiring the pope to give infallibility to a council, for sometimes those who were correct were in the minority (think Athanasius contra mundum or Maximus the Confessor), and sometimes those who were in power were in error (Nestorius, Honorius, and Sergius to name a few), but by the working of the Holy Spirit in the Church, the Truth managed to prevail.
So the issues themselves decide the authoritativeness?
 
Who is right? Clearly the issue of what makes a council authoritative is more complicated than meeting a certain set of criteria.
And clearly acceptance by the whole church is the foremost of those “criteria” that are simply not true. If not then I’d say only about two councils have any shot at the binding and authoritative claim.
No, it’s not like that at all. The Church is not a democracy (not even at the conciliar level), and the laity do not have that sort of authority. I did not mean to say that the laity have the ability to determine the authority of a council. It is a more of a mysterious thing than that. At times, the Church acts with one mind, and such events are seen to be a sign that the Spirit is guiding the Church.
But if they have not that authority then they should not exercise it, and surely, the authoritativeness or lack thereof of a council should never be allowed to swing on the acceptance/non-acceptance of those that have no authority to determine that authoritativeness in the first place.
The very notion that a council can be ‘infallible’ is a rather dangerous way to think of it. If we are to believe that councils only exist to clarify the faith of the Fathers, and not to create new teachings, then the notion of infallibility is a moot point, because it is the agreement of the council with the deposit of the faith (represented by the teachings which have been faithfully passed down by the body of the bishops who are successors of the Apostles) which confers any sort of infallibility to a council,
Basically, it’s true teaching that confers infallibilty, not divinely instituted and protected authority. I guess the question then is, who determines whether the council has agreed with the deposit of faith in its pronouncements, proclamations or teachings?
This is why we see, for example, the bishops at the Council of Chalcedon reading and agreeing with the Creed of Nicaea, the Creed of Constantinople and the Second Letter of Cyril to Nestorius: the bishops are simultaneously expressing their agreement with the documents, and also affirming (or rather reaffirming) that the documents are in accord with the faith of the Fathers and of the Apostles.
True. But all Heretics cited the fathers and scripture and claimed to be teaching in accordance with the deposit of faith. The citing of previous teaching does not mean that the Council’s authority is not infallible on the question of doctrine it determines on the sole basis of divine protection from teaching error. After all, any two people can read the same sources and conclude very different things, or we would not have the early Heresies regarding the very nature of God.
 
And clearly acceptance by the whole church is the foremost of those “criteria” that simply must not be true. Otherwise, we’d be forced to say that only about two councils have any shot at the binding and authoritative claim.
Yes, so even worse still, aside from the Holy Spirit, there is nothing to guarantee that councils are authoritative.
But if they have not that authority then they should not exercise it, and surely, the authoritativeness or lack thereof of a council should never be allowed to swing on the acceptance/non-acceptance of those that have no authority to determine that authoritativeness in the first place.
The laity doesn’t do that, I even said that in what you quoted.
This sounds eerily close to sola-scriptura arguments. You say that it’s true teaching that confers infallibilty, not divinely instituted and protected authority. I guess the question then is, who determines whether the council has agreed with the deposit of faith in its pronouncements, proclamations or teachings? True. But all Heretics cited the fathers and scripture and claimed to be teaching in accordance with the deposit of faith. The citing of previous teaching does not mean that the Council’s authority is not infallible on the question of doctrine it determines on the sole basis of divine protection from teaching error. After all, any two people can read the same sources and conclude very different things, or we would not have the early Heresies regarding the very nature of God.
No, the insistence on infallible councils is like a sola scriptura argument. What protestants do with scripture, Catholics have a tendency to do with councils. If councils are immediately authoritative upon being accepted by a pope, why was the Council of Constantinople of 879 repudiated two centuries later, after the reconciliation of Photius to the Church was accepted (this is where the impious myth of Photios as being some sort of deposed schismatic comes from; he died within the Church).
So the issues themselves decide the authoritativeness?
No. The Holy Spirit does.
 
Yes, so even worse still, aside from the Holy Spirit, there is nothing to guarantee that councils are authoritative.
The Holy Spirit must communicate his truth on the authoritativeness of a council to the Church somehow.
The laity doesn’t do that, I even said that in what you quoted.
Alright- so what constitutes “the whole church” that must accept the Councils?
No, the insistence on infallible councils is like a sola scriptura argument.
I beg to differ. Insisting that everyone must accept a Council for it to be binding and authoritative, is placing the authority to decide truth on individual Christians and makes nonsense of any teaching office in the Church at all- That is exactly what Sola scriptura does.
 
Being away from the sacraments is a thoroughly unpleasant experience: I wouldn’t wish it on anyone. What complicates things even further is that, if the Eastern Orthodox are right, Catholic sacraments are defective: the communion elements remain bread and wine, and sins won’t be duly absolved by the priest after the penitant’s confession. Heaven help us.
I wonder who you mean when you speak of “the Orthodox” in this regard. You’ll certainly find many Trad Caths who would happily stick to this exact opinion of the Orthodox (and some must, still) but for the clarity in Catholicism on who exactly speaks for the Church. This view on catholic sacraments is not something you can properly attribute to the orthodox as a whole.

As an aside, my friend, if all the many giants of sanctity in the churches are not clear proof of an abundant grace present in and The Holy Spirit busy at work in the Church, then nothing is. 👍.
 
The Holy Spirit must communicate his truth on the authoritativeness of a council to the Church somehow.
How it does so is a mystery, just like salvation and the sacraments are great mysteries.
Alright- so what constitutes “the whole church” that must accept the Councils?
You’ve heard of the concept of consensus patrem, have you not? It’s similar; there becomes a clear consensus over time (like what happened with the trinitarians, even though Arians and semi-Arians outnumbered them at first). Again, this is a great mystery of the Holy Spirit how the body of Christ is guided into consensus.
I beg to differ. Insisting that everyone must accept a Council for it to be binding and authoritative, is placing the authority to decide truth on individual Christians and makes nonsense of any teaching office in the Church at all- That is exactly what Sola scriptura does.
Then the Catholic system is nothing but magisterial and papal sola scriptura. Authority rests not in man but in the one Godhead which guides the Church through the actions of the Holy Spirit. Perhaps that answer is unsatisfactory to you, but then there is no such thing as certainty in faith.
 
I’ve heard them call themselves Eastern Orthodox, and Orthodox Catholic, and Eastern Orthodox Catholic and I don’t know the technicalities of those names, but they all seem to be separate from the Roman Catholics for the same reasons, and they don’t consider themselves under the authority of the Pope as anything more than a leader among equals. 🤷
This is correct. We do consider ourselves Catholic, but not under the Pope. Why would we not call ourselves catholic when we use the Nicene-constantinopolitan Creed? The Creed clearly states that we “believe in One, Holy, Catholic and Apostolic Church.” Katholiki is the greek word that we get the english word Catholic from. It is kind of offensive to us that the Roman Catholic Church/ECC thinks that they are THE Catholic Church just because your Church took that as its name. We are in fact Catholic, and Catholic is not synonymous with (I will try to be as accurate as possible here) the Papal Catholic Churches. Hence why we would refer to you as Roman Catholic whether you’re eastern or not. Its just our way of defining our identity from your’s, since we are in fact Catholic (ie universal).

The sinner,
Josh
Most Holy Mother of God save us!
 
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