T
ThomasEugene
Guest
i sa w abook whose imprimatur was given by a religious sister. it’s my first time to encounter such. is it allowed?
Yes. Provided that the person giving it was appointed as a “censor” by the bishop. That’s not to question the text, only to explain that the bishop can appoint any qualified person (clergy or laity) to that post, even though we’re accustomed to seeing clergy.oops. yes it is a nihil obstat. is it allowed?
Yes. It’s the normal function of someone appointed by the bishop to issue a nihil obstat. Wikipedia provides some explanation. Most bishops are too busy to literally read everything cover-to-cover that is submitted to them, so the nihil obstat represents part of the process of delegating the nitty-gritty review to a qualified censor. As I understand it, this is done in accordance with Canon 830:oops. yes it is a nihil obstat. is it allowed?
Of course, the imprimatur on the Catechism was given by none other than the former Joseph Cardinal Ratzinger, himself.Here’s a good article
cuf.org/faithfacts/details_view.asp?ffID=268
I think the Imprimatur has to be given by the bishop himself (ie, the Ordinary of the diocese). He can delegate the actual work of arriving at the decision to someone whom he trusts (like a vicar general or auxiliary bishop, or even “anyone”), but from what I understand, it has to be the name of the bishop himself that’s printed.
were given too prematurely or freely due to errors in spiritual teaching contained in some books. Is there any viable truth to support this thinking.certainly not all
Actually, he gave the Imprimi Potest.Of course, the imprimatur on the Catechism was given by none other than the former Joseph Cardinal Ratzinger, himself.![]()