L
lakotak
Guest
Should a person receive the Body and Blood from a priest that is preaching heresy?

The state of the priest as to whether or not they are preaching heresy has nothing to do with whether or not the sacrament is valid, so it is irrelevant.Should a person receive the Body and Blood from a priest that is preaching heresy?
Or maybe it is political correctness which enables incidents like mere laity thinking they can or should publicly question their bishop’s authority. I suspect the Congregation for the Doctrine of Faith will inform you that this matter is the jurisdiction of the Bishop and as long as the Bishop is in the process of investigating and taking action then they won’t act on your accusations.On the other hand, one thing that enables incidents like this is the political correctness preventing anyone from rebuking heresy. A priest is standing up and teaching blatant lies, undermining the faith of thousands, and people act like this is not a catastrophe! The bishop should not treat an issue like this as a matter to be quietly investigated, then swept under the carpet. He is responsible for those souls who he is leaving in the care of this priest, and I fear greatly for him!
But doesn’t the priest have to have A) proper matter (bread and wine); B) Proper form (the ritual set forth by the Church; and C) proper intent (ie, he INTENDS to confect the Holy Sacrifice)? If he’s lacking the last, by an overt denial of the Church’s teaching on Transubstantiation, then wouldn’t that invalidate the sacrament?The state of the priest as to whether or not they are preaching heresy has nothing to do with whether or not the sacrament is valid, so it is irrelevant.
Incorrect on the qualification. If he intends to deliver a sacrament and through it, grace, then that is the required intent for a valid Eucharist. That is why the clarification of intent from Trent is “that the minister intend to do as the church does.”But doesn’t the priest have to have A) proper matter (bread and wine); B) Proper form (the ritual set forth by the Church; and C) proper intent (ie, he INTENDS to confect the Holy Sacrifice)? If he’s lacking the last, by an overt denial of the Church’s teaching on Transubstantiation, then wouldn’t that invalidate the sacrament?
I see. Thank you for the clarification.Incorrect on the qualification. If he intends to deliver a sacrament and through it, grace, then that is the required intent for a valid Eucharist. That is why the clarification of intent from Trent is “that the minister intend to do as the church does.”
This means that while he may not believe as the church teaches or believes, if he intends to deliver the sacrament then it is valid. It does not matter if he believes the sacrament contains the Real Presense or not.
EDIT: Correction, he does not have to even believe that the sacrament will confer grace. From what I’ve just read, all he has to do is intend to deliver the sacrament.
For the time being, you have informed the relevant authority. You don’t need to come online and publicly question your bishop or call into doubt his actions.Promethius please don’t misunderstand, I don’t claim any authority whatsoever. I am only planning on informing all relevant authorities, to ensure something is done.
Did you provide evidence of this homily to the bishop? A taping of it? It could be, as I said, that you are a liar with a grudge against the priest, or that you’ve overblown the homily as heresy (for all we know, the priest was talking about the fact that the accident remains bread and wine while the essense changes, and you misinterpreted this to be heresy when it is not. You might be surprised how often self-appointed “liturgical police” are found to be in error). None of us knows that you are being honest for certain (or that, being honest, you are even right).The bishop did say he was reviewing the homily. It was not a complicated homily. It said, repeatedly and clearly, transubstantiation is not real, and the Eucharist is only a symbol.
The was weeks before we saw the priest performing mass and he once again harassed those treating the Eucharist with reverence.
These are the facts. They give adequate cause to suspect that my Bishop is not doing his job.
Again, you’re stating, as fact, that the bishop is not doing his job. That is certainly not a fact, but an opinion (and one which you base on your view as a layperson with no authority to make such a determination on this matter).What is slanderous about outlining the facts, especially when I’m not naming any parties involved?