Having neglected, thus far, to respond to many of the good people here, I shall endeavor to do so, now.
adnauseum:
See?
The Bible was in fact established by the authority of the Roman Catholic Church.
No serious intellectual denies this.
EOM and his alter-ego deny this.
That’s all there is to it, folks.
Hmm… According to you, no serious intellectual denies that the “Roman Catholic church,” and not simply the universal (Catholic) church of early Christianity “established” the Bible. Then, I suppose on this way of “thinking,” there are no serious intellectuals outside of informed members of the Roman Catholic church.
I would suggest, kindly, that if you believe that, it is time for me to question the seriousness of your concept of an “intellectual”… Perhaps, instead of this kind of extravagant claim, we can keep our mind’s focused on the issue at hand. We are not discussing whether you (or I) think that the Roman Catholic church “established” the Bible (or even, technically, existed at the time). The issue is whether, for all its claims to antiquity, Rome reflects the nature of Christ’s true church.
So far, unless I have missed something, other than denying what seem to be the plain facts of history (as I hope to have shown with my latest series of posts) and arguing that the Roman church is the true Church on other grounds altogether, my main point has not really been challenged.
Now,
esr brought up a point which was discussed a bit earlier, specifically whether the Roman church could be the true church even if guilty of all that I have demonstrated. I believe that the Scripture passages I have provided (plus others) leave us without recourse to this suggestion (John 16:2-3; I John 3:13-17 and others). If esr (or anyone else) disagrees, then I would be glad to hear anything they have to say in explanation of those passages of Holy Scripture. I think it would be imperative then to bring other passages to bear on the subject as we ought to be thorough and honest with the whole testimony of the Bible as to the nature of the Church.
Quickly, I will also address the question of
the_storygirl. You are quite correct, of course, that certain individuals whom we know to be followers of GOD did things of which they were rightly ashamed. However, they repented of this and, also, they are individuals and nothing of their religion sanctions what they did. If it had done so, they would not have seen the need to repent.
My concern is not with individuals but with a religion or an institution (a church) that
{B]does, after all, sanction what is evil, according to the Bible. The goodness and the evil of individuals may have nothing at all to do with the ideals or the ogranization or institutions they profess to serve. This is why, when the los point to abortion clinic bombers, for instance, we can honestly suggest to them that the actions of such people have more to do with our accusers than with ourselves and our beliefs. Why? Because the activity of the abotion clinic bomber was a wretchedly self-centered act and this is not in accordance with our religion but is prevalent at the heart of all non-Christian thought.
It is when the institution itself or the religious beliefs themselves sanction evil or allow evil or suggest or imply that such evil is right that we have good grounds for condemning that institution or religious belief. The question is, is Rome itself guilty of this?