Who split from whom - Catholic versus Orthodox?

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JohnStrachan

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My best friend is Ukrainian Orthodox, he maintains that the RC church split from the Orthodox Tradition because of the filioque and supremacy of the papacy. This might be moot to many here, but he argues that the Orthodox are the true recipients of the faith from Christ and that the RC Church is guilty of heresy in the same way Protestants are viewed as heretics from the RC Church. Whose right?
 
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It was mutual. As Catholics we would of course maintain that the Catholic Church holds perfectly the apostolic faith, and that the Orthodox therefore are the schismatics.
 
Well if one reads the Fathers the consensus was for them that were was Peter was the Church. He is the only one that holds the Keys. Jesus gave them only to Peter and no one else.
The Orthodox have never claimed they have the authority of Peter and even their own accepted Fathers recognized the Bishop of Rome as the successor to Peter. Can you split the Vine from the branch or vice versa?
 
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It takes two to tango. That being said, we as Catholics recognize that the Orthodox are “True Churches” and “Sister Churches”, that they have apostolic succession and therefore valid sacraments.

The split between the two Churches has more to do with politics, geography and language than theology. It’s an issue of upper management. For a millennium, East and West were in communion with one another, even with different expressions of the faith.

ZP
 
Yet Pope Francis doesn’t believe that.

And the Church since Vatican II has eschewed this language.
 
Acts 15 reveals an apostolic church that was collegial, not based upon papal supremacy.
It reveals an apostolic Church with Peter (who St. John Chrysostom, revered by both Churches, confesses to be given an individual and unique charge to tend Christ’s flock) as its spokesman. Wherever the apostles are to be found, there also (as Acts 15 reveals) is Peter, the prince of the apostles and leader of the apostolic choir (St. Chrysostom’s own words).
 
The EO Churches cannot be said to the one catholic Church we profess in the Creed, because they are simply not one. Many of their theologians even admit that the an ecclesiology that acknowledges one universal Church necessitates the primacy, which is why they try and defend a purely Eucharistic ecclesiology. They are simply a collection of particular Churches (a particular Church being defined as a bishop and flock celebrating a common Eucharist). They separated from that one, universal Church.

A Ukrainian Orthodox person should be acutely aware of this, given the multiplicity in Ukraine itself. They constantly get into situations where EO particular church A is in communion with B, B is in communion with C, but A and C are not in communion with each other (A=B=C≠A) (e.g. the current schism between Constantinople, Moscow, and some Ukrainian Churches; ROCOR; the Moscow-Contantinople schism in 1996; the Bulgarian schism of the 19th century when most patriarchates, but not Moscow, broke communion with the Bulgarian Churches; etc., etc.). How can one universal/catholic church simultaneously have some particular churches in communion with other particular churches, while other churches are separated from each other? That’s not unity. This can only make sense if there is a plurality of Churches–the “one” of the Creed is lacking–and without this oneness, the very concept of one catholic/universal Church becomes untenable.

This was illustrated perfectly by the recent pan-Orthodox Synod (or whatever it ultimately was classified as). It barely even got off the ground because Churches were threatening to boycott (and many did) because they were fighting with other Churches over who had jurisdiction over what. Despite the EO polemics about all bishops being equal, if you look at how that synod was explicitly organized and carried out, the bishops who participated in that synod did not do so as equal bishops of one Church, but as representatives of multiple national Churches and patriarchates. What was sought was not a consensus of the bishops of one Church (or even a consensus of particular Churches), but rather a consensus of independent national Churches–which didn’t happen anyway.
 
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anon48198893:
Acts 15 reveals an apostolic church that was collegial, not based upon papal supremacy.
It reveals an apostolic Church with Peter (who St. John Chrysostom, revered by both Churches, confesses to be given an individual and unique charge to tend Christ’s flock) as its spokesman. Wherever the apostles are to be found, there also (as Acts 15 reveals) is Peter, the prince of the apostles and leader of the apostolic choir (St. Chrysostom’s own words).
Indubitably, you’re right.

The question is over what power that leadership enjoys. If you were a Latin, then the pope was obviously empowered to unilaterally change ecumenical council on the basis that he’s the pope.

If you were a Greek, there is no higher authority than council. Why else have them when you can just ask Peter’s heir?
 
The EO Churches cannot be said to the one catholic Church we profess in the Creed, because they are simply not one.
Maybe not from a more monolithic Latin perspective. But if you were to ask a Greek Orthodox if they were members of the same Church as an Antiochian Orthodox, they would emphatically agree.

For them, it would be like asking “Do you think the sky is blue?”.
Many of their theologians even admit that the an ecclesiology that acknowledges one universal Church necessitates the primacy…
Sure, which is why they generally and historically recognize the Ecumenical Patriarch in Constantinople. Remember though that their understanding of the role of primacy is far, far more limited than the Latin one.
A Ukrainian Orthodox person should be acutely aware of this, given the multiplicity in Ukraine itself. They constantly get into situations where EO particular church A is in communion with B, B is in communion with C, but A and C are not in communion with each other (A=B=C≠A)
Sure. It’s how they’ve exercised Church Discipline for roughly 2000 years. Historically, it has worked fine with the conflicting parties generally returning to communion.

Occasionally that hasn’t happened and there have been breakaways. The Catholic Church has experienced the very same, particularly around the times of Trent and Vatican I.
This was illustrated perfectly by the recent pan-Orthodox Synod (or whatever it ultimately was classified as). It barely even got off the ground because Churches were threatening to boycott (and many did) because they were fighting with other Churches over who had jurisdiction over what.
This is the systemic problem/systemic blessing of Orthodoxy.
It’s extremely difficult to implement Church-wide changes and when they happen, there’s about always a substantial amount of time involved (e.g. 5 Churches agree on something, it takes 200 years for the others to eventually come around).
On the flip side, they don’t have near the potential issues found in the west from centuries of over-dogmatization.

A fault and a virtue wrapped up in one.
 
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The EO Churches cannot be said to the one catholic Church we profess in the Creed, because they are simply not one. Many of their theologians even admit that the an ecclesiology that acknowledges one universal Church necessitates the primacy, which is why they try and defend a purely Eucharistic ecclesiology. They are simply a collection of particular Churches (a particular Church being defined as a bishop and flock celebrating a common Eucharist). They separated from that one, universal Church.

A Ukrainian Orthodox person should be acutely aware of this, given the multiplicity in Ukraine itself. They constantly get into situations where EO particular church A is in communion with B, B is in communion with C, but A and C are not in communion with each other (A=B=C≠A) (e.g. the current schism between Constantinople, Moscow, and some Ukrainian Churches; ROCOR; the Moscow-Contantinople schism in 1996; the Bulgarian schism of the 19th century when most patriarchates, but not Moscow, broke communion with the Bulgarian Churches; etc., etc.). How can one universal/catholic church simultaneously have some particular churches in communion with other particular churches, while other churches are separated from each other? That’s not unity. This can only make sense if there is a plurality of Churches–the “one” of the Creed is lacking–and without this oneness, the very concept of one catholic/universal Church becomes untenable.

This was illustrated perfectly by the recent pan-Orthodox Synod (or whatever it ultimately was classified as). It barely even got off the ground because Churches were threatening to boycott (and many did) because they were fighting with other Churches over who had jurisdiction over what. Despite the EO polemics about all bishops being equal, if you look at how that synod was explicitly organized and carried out, the bishops who participated in that synod did not do so as equal bishops of one Church, but as representatives of multiple national Churches and patriarchates. What was sought was not a consensus of the bishops of one Church (or even a consensus of particular Churches), but rather a consensus of independent national Churches–which didn’t happen anyway.
I am not sure if this is fair to the Eastern Orthodox. As I understand them, they believe that the concelebration or at least the acknowledgement of each other’s patriarch/bishop in the Divine Liturgy unites the church because the unity as espoused in the creed is being united in the literal Body of Christ. I am not even sure if the absolute power of the Pope of Rome, who, according to Vatican I, can depose and raise bishops according to his will, is rooted in most of the church fathers of the early church. But, then again, some Church Fathers affirmed the Filioque while others denied it or were silent about it. Hence, I am confused as to which church is the true continuation of the Church as preached by the apostles.
 
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I am not sure if this is fair to the Eastern Orthodox. They believe that the concelebration or at least the acknowledgement of each other’s patriarch/bishop in the Divine Liturgy unites the church because the unity as espoused in the creed is in the literal Body of Christ. I am not even sure if the absolute power of the Pope of Rome, who, according to Vatican I, can depose and raise bishops according to his will, is rooted in most of the church fathers of the early church. But, then again, some Church Fathers affirm the Filioque while others deny it or were silent about it. Hence, I am confused
I recall Nicaea discussing the authority of the Patriarchs of Alexandria and Antioch in having similar power over their sees as Peter’s heir had over his. Canon 5? 7? Somewhere around there.

Point being, there has been a clear development in papal power over the centuries. As to what you make of that, you’re in the driver’s seat on that one, bud. 😅
 
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As to your first point, as I explained in my post, this is not internally consistent. For example, Bartholomew I is now acknowledged in some, but not others. Concelebration is ok among some, but not others. That would therefore mean the mystical Body of Christ is therefore both present and not present at the same time in certain particular Churches depending on which other particular Church you start with. It’s an impossible contradiction.

With regard to your second point, the same abstract principles with regard to the Pope’s authority would need to be true for how the papacy was exercised in other times as it is now. Acts with jurisdictional consequences have been present from the earliest centuries, even if much more sporadic. The Church’s dogmatic definition, therefore must focus on the “can,” but the “should” may be different, depending on the circumstances.

The Pope’s job is to serve unity, not to take over the roles of the divinely instituted episcopate or the Patriarchates created by council and custom. Catholic dogma on the Pope’s jurisdiction focuses on the abstract principles, because the “should” of every situation cannot be foreseen. The Pope appointing bishops, for example, is pretty new and was occasioned by certain historical circumstances (even still, there is a collegial process that leads to the appointment).

Overall, it is best for the Pope to act collegially with his brother bishops whenever possible–even today, little is done by the Pope without consulting them. St. Peter could have unilaterally appointed Judas’ replacement, but for good reasons he chose not to:

St. John Chrysostom
Wherefore at the beginning he said, “Men and brethren. It behooves” to choose from among you. He defers the decision to the whole body, thereby both making the elected objects of reverence and himself keeping clear of all invidiousness with regard to the rest. For such occasions always give rise to great evils. Now that some one must needs be appointed, he adduces the prophet as witness: but from among what persons: “Of these,” he says, “which have companied with us all the time.” To have said, the worthy must present themselves, would have been to insult the others; but now he refers the matter to length of time; for he says not simply, “These who have companied with us,” but, “all the time that the Lord Jesus went in and out among us, beginning from the baptism of John unto that same day that He was taken up from us, must one be ordained to be a witness with us of His resurrection” Acts 1:22: that their college (ὁ χορὸς) might not be left mutilated. Then why did it not rest with Peter to make the election himself: what was the motive? This; that he might not seem to bestow it of favor.
http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/210103.htm
But, sometimes he needs to take action to serve unity. For example, should there be a dispute as to the rightly elected Patriarch, the Pope would serve as the final court of appeal to settle the issue, so that peace would be resolved. Or say a See had been sufficiently corrupted that it became necessary for the unity of faith and charity that someone “outside” be appointed. That could serve unity.
 
intercommunion was present until late middle ages, even then sometimes occured… But in the end let’s do the math. Alexandria went Miaphysite; Antioch Local Line remained Catholic, Antioch Greek Line rejected schism later went Catholic, Jerusalem went Orthodox, Constantinople went Orthodox, Rome remained Catholic. Technically speaking Constantinople just tried to elavate itself to support Byzantine (Eastern Roman) Empire.

Constantinople was supposed to hold high rank in Church hierarchy because it was practical. Rewind thousand and a half years later and Istanbul holds primacy even though it is not practical at all.

Catholics still held ecumenical/general councils and local synods, Orthodoxy became disunited and separated enough to not call such council in any way. We remained loyal to Peter, on whom Church was built- the Rock.

While it is true there was development of rights of Papacy in history, it was mostly to preserve the Church against political powers and nobles. Orthodoxy is known for Caesaropapism and State controlling the Church or using it anyway. You can not serve two masters.

Pope is infallible and therefore whole Church should use this gift- Bible is infallible and whole Church benefits, why not from Pope? Why deprive Church from Ecumenical Councils guided by Holy Spirit? Why separate it, if Jesus wanted us to be united? Many times Catholics extended their hand to Orthodoxy in hope of unification and Orthodoxy sometimes accepted, but then rejected. Some of Orthodox Churches united with us and became Eastern Catholic Churches. Some Eastern Catholics never actually left Catholic Church. Historically you will find proofs that while Orthodoxy ritual-wise remained closer to Early Church, ecclesiology and theology wise, and on basis of all principles, Catholic Church remained the real Church, Bride of Christ.
 
My problem with Orthodoxy is that there is no real definition of Ecumenical Council- many Ecumenical Councils became robber Councils later on, was Church therefore deceived? Who is the final judge in this matter what is infallible and what is not? Another council? Or should we wait century to check if it paid off or did not, was opposed or wasn’t? This way we could proclaim will of Holy Spirit anything

Historically and even now, Catholic Church maintained that Pope decides that. Popes would never call Ecumenical Councils pre-schism. Why is that? Because their word was enough, as we see Tome of Leo the Great condemning heresies. There is no confusion as to what Pope proclaimed outside of those who try to twist truth to suit themselves and deny Papacy of some Pontiffs. Popes have also never ever supported “Robber” Councils until Schism from Catholic viewpoint, and if we neglect 8th Ecumenical Council then also from Orthodox viewpoint. Photian Schism, usurpation of Bulgaria against Church Canons and elevation of Constantinople and reaction of all other Patriarchs all speak in favor of Papacy.

While Pope should respect dignity of Eastern Churches there should be no impediment to stop him from acting if needed. We simply trust God he will lead His Church and His Vicar.
 
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Well if one reads the Fathers the consensus was for them that were was Peter was the Church. He is the only one that holds the Keys. Jesus gave them only to Peter and no one else.
The Orthodox have never claimed they have the authority of Peter and even their own accepted Fathers recognized the Bishop of Rome as the successor to Peter. Can you split the Vine from the branch or vice versa?
The issue was never about whether Rome was the Seat of Peter, the issue was what precisely that meant. The Orthodox Church, under the auspices of the Heirs of Constantine, did not feel that it owed Rome any particular service, and viewed Rome as being a first among equals. In other words, the Eastern Church was willing to acknowledge Rome’s supremacy, providing that supremacy was of a ceremonial kind, and did not have any kind of coercive authority. Beyond that, after the final collapse of the Western Empire, Rome could hardly legitimately call itself the head of the Christian Church, whereas Constantinople remained an Imperial City and the Eastern Church remained under its protection.

In reality, the steady march to schism was as much about how the Western Church was evolving as a primary political institution to the Germanic kingdoms, whereas the Eastern Church remained, and in some ways still remains to this day, an organ of the governments which protect it (i.e. the Russian Orthodox Church as a tool of the Russian state, and even the status of the Patriarchate of Constantinople in Turkey, where the Sultans and later the the Turkish republic, acted as the protector and sponsor of that Church).

I’d say the final schism came in large part due to the evolution of the Papacy in the post-Carolingian period. Rome put considerable effort into making Charlemagne and his heirs into Emperors worthy of Constantine, and as such, was willing to at least take a somewhat subordinate position to the Carolingians (as an attempt to emulate a limited form of the Caesero-Papism of the Byzantines). But with the decline and failure of the Carolingian Dynasty, the Papacy became far more overtly political, not only in its dealing with the European princes, but in its dealings with the Eastern Church. Both sides share some blame, but I think the expansive view of the Papacy that evolved made it impossible for any Pope to accept the notion that the Primacy of the Throne of Peter didn’t just mean a sort of ceremonial rank, but rather that it must mean that Rome had absolute primacy in all religious matters.
 
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Where is successor of Peter now according to Orthodoxy then? Or did he just disappear or schism from Church?

In all seriousness yes, Papacy went political over the ages but that was never something forbidden to the Church anyway, Church is part of Kingdom of God. German-Constantinopolitan relations never had any theology issues until there was bread issue in Constantinople. Papacy wanted to utilize their power to protect and serve the Church while Emperors wanted it as tool for themselves.
 
While it is true there was development of rights of Papacy in history, it was mostly to preserve the Church against political powers and nobles. Orthodoxy is known for Caesaropapism and State controlling the Church or using it anyway. You can not serve two masters.
It’s a bit more than that. Certainly the Papacy didn’t want to end up like they did after the fall of the Western Empire, beholden to either German warlords or the ultimate Warlord, Justinian. At the same time, the Church after the decline of the Carolingian Empire went a lot further than merely trying to ring fence itself against threats (since, in reality, under the Carolingian model, it had obtained the ultimate special status by sponsoring a new Emperor and acting under his auspices as God’s chosen heir to the Caesars). The Papacy took a much more proactive role in European politics, and apart from creating growing divisions among the European princes, the Byzantine Emperors were all too conscious that any significant acknowledgment of Rome’s primacy would be a Trojan Horse. Let Rome tell Eastern clerics what to do, and the next thing you know, the Pope would be asserting authority over the Emperor.
 
Where is successor of Peter now according to Orthodoxy then? Or did he just disappear or schism from Church?

In all seriousness yes, Papacy went political over the ages but that was never something forbidden to the Church anyway, Church is part of Kingdom of God. German-Constantinopolitan relations never had any theology issues until there was bread issue in Constantinople. Papacy wanted to utilize their power to protect and serve the Church while Emperors wanted it as tool for themselves.
I’d argue that Rome badly overreached. While it had some temporary victories, like the ones over Emperor Frederick II and Henry II of England, I don’t think it’s too strong an argument to make that those battles with the European Princes laid the groundwork for the Reformation. You don’t think those German princes watching the battles between Luther and Rome didn’t see an opportunity to finally “rid themselves of that meddlesome priest”?

At any rate, as I say above, the Byzantine Emperors certainly saw the Papacy as a challenge to their authority, and whatever primacy the Throne of Peter might have, in practical terms in the Middle Ages, being the Byzantine Emperor meant Emperor of the Romans, and further, since Constantine was the spark of a Christian Emperor, it meant the Roman Emperor stood astride the Church as its protector and the source of its political power.

Both sides were being absurd, of course. The Papacy overreached within its own domain, the Byzantine position that Constantinople was the practical center of Christianity was unsupportable considering that after the Justinian expansion, Constantinople barely held on to a sliver of Italy, and had no meaningful ability to assert its authority. I often wonder if the Papacy’s battles with Constantinople had as much to do with the Papacy needing to project strength, even if ultimately impotent, because to find any kind of accommodation would have represented a blow in the face of increasingly restive Northern European princes.
 
Where is successor of Peter now according to Orthodoxy then?
The Orthodox acknowledge the Pope of Rome as successor of Peter, along with the Patriarch of Antioch. The Orthodox also acknowledge that the Bishop of Rome had primacy among the Bishops of the early Church. From the Ravenna Document, “Both sides agree that this canonical taxis was recognised by all in the era of the undivided Church. Further, they agree that Rome, as the Church that “presides in love” according to the phrase of St Ignatius of Antioch ( To the Romans, Prologue), occupied the first place in the taxis, and that the bishop of Rome was therefore the protos among the patriarchs.” What is disputted is, “They disagree, however, on the interpretation of the historical evidence from this era regarding the prerogatives of the bishop of Rome as protos, a matter that was already understood in different ways in the first millennium.”

ZP
 
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