P
Pwrlftr
Guest
I didn’t say the glossa didn’t contain the deutero’s but it is common knowledge that the text included within the glossa rejected the deutero’s (ie. contained text that rejected the inspiration of the deutero’s).According to the dissertation of Alexander Andree ('05 Stockholm University) and Beryl Smalley [these are easily googled on line] ALL Glossae Ordinariae had the full Catholic OT, you know, the deuteros?
I just finished listening to Gary Michuta in his debate with James White and even Gary realizes that the glossa contained text which rejected the deutero’s.
From newadvent.org
In the Latin Church, all through the Middle Ages we find evidence of hesitation about the character of the deuterocanonicals. There is a current friendly to them, another one distinctly unfavourable to their authority and sacredness, while wavering between the two are a number of writers whose veneration for these books is tempered by some perplexity as to their exact standing, and among those we note St. Thomas Aquinas. Few are found to unequivocally acknowledge their canonicity. The prevailing attitude of Western medieval authors is substantially that of the Greek Fathers. **The chief cause of this phenomenon in the West is to be sought in the influence, direct and indirect, of St. Jerome’s depreciating Prologus. The compilatory “Glossa Ordinaria” was widely read and highly esteemed as a treasury of sacred learning during the Middle Ages; it embodied the prefaces in which the Doctor of Bethlehem had written in terms derogatory to the deuteros, and thus perpetuated and diffused his unfriendly opinion. **
Need I remind you that Jerome rejected the deuteros.