**How about . . . because the vessels of wrath fitted for destruction (Ro. 9:23) have no chance for salvation, your question is moot.
**
(I’d posted this in a seemingly now defunct thread, but those good ol’ “vessels of wrath” have raised their ugly heads yet again.
)
Please note that Paul is speaking in a very Jewish way above; that is, he poses a rhetorical question (“What if”). He is playing off the theological language of contemporary Pharisees who believed that only Jews were created for the Kingdom and Gentiles were created for destruction. Paul is not saying that this is so. He is essentially denying it, and his original audience would get this immediately; but, to see that, you have to read Romans in context. Sit down and read it in one sitting, as if you are listening to a sermon, and you will see that Romans is only about one thing: that inclusion of the Gentiles is the plan of God, and the rejection of Pharisaic theology. Indeed, in the very next verse, 25, he continues:
"As indeed he says in Hosea, ‘Those who are not my people, I will call my people.’ "
Paul is speaking about membership in the Covenant, how Gentiles will be included, whereas some Jewish observers of the Law will not. And, the real meaning of the “vessels of wrath” is illustrated a little later in v.30ff, where he says:
“What then shall we say? That Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have achieved it, that is, righteousness that comes from faith, but that Israel, who pursued the Law of righteousness, did not attain to that Law? Why not? Because they did it not by faith, but as if it could be done by works. They stumbled over the Stone that causes stumbling.”
In other words, God did not actively decree that anti-Christian Jews be excluded from the Covenant and damned. Rather, He offered them mercy and truth through the Law, but they stumbled over it because they did not live the Law through faith, but proudly and hypocritically.
And the reality of this is hammered home a few verses later in Rom. 10:1ff, where Paul continues:
“Brothers, my heart’s desire and my prayer to God on their behalf is for salvation.”
If these people (the anti-Christian Jews) were truly vessels of wrath that are predestined by God’s will unto damnation (as Calvin taught and as Calvinists believe), then how can Paul pray for them in hope of their salvation???
That makes no sense. In this verse (Rom. 10:1) Paul is saying the same thing that he says in 1 Tim 2:1-4, where he asks for prayers for everybody because GOD “wills that all men be saved and come to a knowledge of the Truth.” So, again, it is a matter of being part of the “elect” of the Covenant, that is, being in the Church or outside of the Church. It is not a matter of one’s ultimate predestination to heaven or hell. This is not what is being addressed at all.
