Again, as I have stated, I do not accept your concept of Apostolic authority! I find Mark as apostolic as Matthew and John – as does the CHURCH!!!
The church accepts the Gospel of Mark as being Apostolic, but it does not recognize Mark as being an Apostle. There is a huge difference. These are questions that are asked by everyone, yet you act as if they are not relevant. This suprises me.
I’m not trying to impress you (or anyone else) about my credentials. You asked – and many others on this thread – are tossing around viewpoints without any credentials at all.
My credentials do not equal my faith – and my learning may prove me wrong. My learning does not equate to my faith. My faith, however, is also informed by reason.
I admit to having no academic credentials in this area. I hope that doesn’t disqualify me from the discussion. I’m simply trying to learn.
I’ve explained them. It is up to you to accept or reject them.
Can you point me to where you’ve explained why you think the Markan priority is the most likely. I went thorugh the entire thread and the only explanation I could find from you was that most scholars ( Protestant and Catholic) favor this view. Seriously, The only explanations I have ever found for why people believe that Mark was first is that it is the shortest and in the poorest Greek and that almost all of Mark is contained within Matthew . The prevailing view seems to be that subsequent Gospels had to improve on previous ones, so Matthew being superior in language and longer, must have been later.
This is the clearly the reasoning used by the editors in the NAB. This is what they say in the preface of the Gospel of Matthew :
The questions of authorship, sources, and the time of composition of this gospel have received many answers, none of which can claim more than a greater or lesser degree of probability. The one now favored by the majority of scholars is the following.
The ancient tradition that the author was the disciple and apostle of Jesus named Matthew (see Matthew 10:3) is untenable because the gospel is based, in large part, on the Gospel according to Mark (almost all the verses of that gospel have been utilized in this), and it is hardly likely that a companion of Jesus would have followed so extensively an account that came from one who admittedly never had such an association rather than rely on his own memories. The attribution of the gospel to the disciple Matthew may have been due to his having been responsible for some of the traditions found in it, but that is far from certain.
The unknown author, whom we shall continue to call Matthew for the sake of convenience, drew not only upon the Gospel according to Mark but upon a large body of material (principally, sayings of Jesus) not found in Mark that corresponds, sometimes exactly, to material found also in the Gospel according to Luke. This material, called “Q” (probably from the first letter of the German word Quelle, meaning “source”), represents traditions, written and oral, used by both Matthew and Luke. Mark and Q are sources common to the two other synoptic gospels; hence the name the “Two-Source Theory” given to this explanation of the relation among the synoptics.
In addition to what Matthew drew from Mark and Q, his gospel contains material that is found only there. This is often designated “M,” written or oral tradition that was available to the author. Since Mark was written shortly before or shortly after A.D. 70 (see Introduction to Mark), Matthew was composed certainly after that date, which marks the fall of Jerusalem to the Romans at the time of the First Jewish Revolt (A.D. 66-70), and probably at least a decade later since Matthew’s use of Mark presupposes a wide diffusion of that gospel. The post-A.D. 70 date is confirmed within the text by Matthew 22:7, which refers to the destruction of Jerusalem.
I do not find this view compelling in the least . So please, if you have a better reason than “Mark is fully contained within Matthew, therefore it must have been first” please share it, I’m not trying to be argumentative. I’m trying to learn. As it is, it seems to me that the Markan Priority is solely defined by the the fact that its shorter and less accomplished and is being upheld for those reasons despite considerable questions on why the Apostle Matthew would need to copy from the non- Apostle Mark and how Matthew and Luke could share content that does not occur in Mark. Furthermore, doesn’t it make sense that Matthew’s Gospel to the Jews would have been written prior to the fall of Jerusalem? I’m seriously looking for help here in finding a compelling argument that Mark was first. Is there any ECF that wrote that Mark was first? . I’ve seen quotes in Eusebius that say Matthew was first.
And by the way, look where the Markan priority in the NAB intro takes us. The authors deny Matthew’s authorship and in its last comment, they deny that Jesus could have predicted that Jerusalem would be destroyed before the fact, suggesting that the only way he could have said this was after the fact. This is clearly a cynical statement of non-belief. in the divinity of Christ. And this is not the only place that Markan priority has led to non-belief. On other forums, the athiests revel in the fact that the Markan priority leads to the assumption that the Bibles are not actually apostolic. How do you answer the skeptics in your classes when this question arises?