S
St_Francis
Guest
Yes, this is an area in which I see Westerners being somewhat blind to the non-Western experience. I found this out by reading about the difficulties missionaries in non-Western areas had because the converts were so far away from understanding the Mass, which was then in Latin. --It also caused me to wonder about the fact that areas with Romance languages generally stayed Catholic, while areas whose languages were not based on Latin were more likely to become Protestant.–For the first time today I looked on the web at EWTN Britain. I don’t know if it’s similar to EWTN USA.
I remember late pre- (and early post-) Vatican II. One example: the Mass used Latin pre-, but not post-. It was a tough transition for some to make (ironically, one reason some family members left the Catholic church).
More recently, and I think for good reasons, the status of the Latin Mass has been (re)-elevated. It is legitimate, and no sign of rebellion, for a parish to have a Latin Mass.
As an outsider now, it also seems clear that the ordinary, standard, regular, etc. language for Mass now continues to be (as Vatican II determined) the common language of the local people, for the obvious reason of enhanced understanding by all.
All in all, a good, fair, prudent state of affairs.
But then at EWTN Britain I see an article attempting to argue that now the Latin and vernacular Mass are equally ordinary, standard, regular, etc. Well, in legitimacy yes. But why chafe against the current Pope’s simple statement that a Latin Mass today is extraordinary rather than ordinary? Seems to be picking a fight for the sake of a fight.
See for yourself:
ewtn.co.uk/news/latest/card-burke-challenges-pope-s-relegation-of-latin-mass-to-an-exception
How about the ending of the article (bold as in original):
Comment
The equality between the ordinary rite and the extraordinary rite is unambiguous in Pope Benedict XVI’s Summorum Pontificum:
The Roman Missal promulgated by Pope Paul VI is the ordinary expression of the lex orandi (rule of prayer) of the Catholic Church of the Latin rite. The Roman Missal promulgated by Saint Pius V and revised by Blessed John XXIII is nonetheless to be considered an extraordinary expression of the same lex orandi of the Church and duly honoured for its venerable and ancient usage. T**hese two expressions of the Church’s lex orandi will in no way lead to a division in the Church’s lex credendi (rule of faith); for they are two usages of the one Roman rite.
**
How can the author overlook the first two sentences?:
The Roman Missal promulgated by Pope Paul VI is the ordinary expression of the lex orandi (rule of prayer) of the Catholic Church of the Latin rite. The Roman Missal promulgated by Saint Pius V and revised by Blessed John XXIII is nonetheless to be considered an extraordinary expression of the same lex orandi of the Church and duly honoured for its venerable and ancient usage.
Again, this is no longer my cat fight, but seems to me EWTN (Britain, at least) might have some bias.
(My next post was originally a continuation of this one, but became so general I separated them.)
