“§3.
ey manifest Catholic faith in respect to these sacraments and are properly disposed.”
The clause you’re referring to is §3 which deals with those who are not protestant.
It appears that §4 deals with protestants. My question is mainly in regard to protestants which is why I said “ie” to differentiate from Eastern Churches. I know priests are not allowed to decide to let any non-Catholic receive communion without the bishop’s permission so I know there are a lot of abuses when it comes to non-catholics going to Catholic weddings and such.
But back to my question- is the practice mentioned in §4 also to be found in the old 1917 code of cannon law? But what I don’t get is why the person isn’t required to desire to become fully Catholic.
Why wouldn’t giving communion to them when they simultaneously reject the Catholic faith in all other matters, make them think it’s okay for them to have their cake and eat it too? And I will state again as a reminder that I’m not rejecting this teaching- I’m just asking why it is so.
Also, my Sedevacantist friend claims that JPII once gave communion to a Zen Budhist. I’m not sure if this is actually true but if he did, I’m sure it must have been in accord to §4 right? It seems so absurd to think anyone would think of St. JP the Great as being a heretic