Ecumenical in it’s modern sense, not in the original form of the word.
Why is Vatican I, for example, an ecumenical council and not a local council?
Is it because the Pope and Magisterium say it is, or because it’s received into the Church and recognized by the laity and the clergy (including the Pope and bishops)?
If I remember correctly, councils are ecumenical in Orthodoxy because they’ve been received and accepted by the whole of the Church.
Not sure where I’m going with this. Thinking out loud maybe.
Later Western Councils are called “ecumenical” I think because the Latin Church thought it was the only true Church, and her councils were approved by him who was traditionally held to be the head bishop of the Church, the Pope. If she was the only true Church with the only true bishops, then it is not hard to understand that she considered her councils “ecumenical.”
Now (and for a while now, actually, even before Vatican 2), the Latin Catholic Church has recognized that she was/is not the only true Church. Since the Catholic Church has never defined the number of Ecumenical Councils, a Catholic would be free to believe that there are only seven Ecumenical Councils. Personally, I would accept several of the other “extra” Councils as Ecumenical, though certainly not all.
My impression is that there is not a clear definition of the term “ecumenical” itself in the first place. Is “ecumenical” tantamount to infallible authority, or does it refer merely to the recognition of the whole Church (or at least a moral unanimity of recognition), or does it refer to the extent of participation of the world’s bishops. Perhaps if we can distinguish these concepts, it might be easier to come to a common understanding.
I believe wholeheartedly that when the world’s bishops, being the God-appointed teachers of the Church, gather together with their head bishop, for the purpose of defining an issue of Faith for the whole Church, it cannot fail to have God’s special Grace to be able to define such an issue (i.e. infallibility). The laity certainly cannot grant an Ecumenical Council its infallible authority, for it is not the laity’s to give. The acceptance of individual members of the Church has no bearing on the inherent infallibilty of such a Council. Can we all agree on that?
The question seems to be, “can we accept a Council as ecumenical if not all the world’s bishops have participated?” Indeed, the Oriental Orthodox are willing to accept the formal dogmatic decrees of the other Seven Councils, but do not view them as Ecumenical simply because it lacked the participation of the Oriental Orthodox. In this view, the infallible teaching authority of the Council is not called into question (keeping in mind that infallibility refers only to the dogmatic decrees, not its canons or disciplinary decrees), and the term “Ecumenical” does not necessarily equate with “infallible,” but merely means “universal.” Here, the laity is seen to be represented by the bishops, and it is assumed that, according to the Scriptural and patristic standards, the faith of the laity is the same faith that the bishops have brought to the Council.
The Eastern Orthodox seems to have added a new element into the mix - the approval of the laity, as an entity separate from its bishops. According to the EO paradigm, the bishops can decree something, but if the laity reject it, then it has no authority. In this paradigm, the bishops in council no longer have the inherent protection of the Holy Spirit, but depends on the approval of the laity before its decrees can even be considered to be infallible. Let’s face it, what occurred among the EO after the Council of Florence - where her bishops were not even given a chance to address the laity, where those same bishops were not even given a chance to be heard in synod before being chased out by the laity - is the model on which the current EO ecclesiology is based.
Can we reconcile the EO ecclesiology with the hierarchical model and order of the Church in the first millenium? Before talks can go forward on this matter, ISTM, we would need a formal repudiation by the EO of the events that occurred after Florence, to ensure that this mob rule is not what the EO intend. I mean, sure, they can claim all they want that they do not teach that the authority of bishops should be rejected, but that does not detract from the fact that they base their ecclesiology on those very events that occurred after Florence. I’m not saying to repudiate the rejection of Florence, but merely repudiate the manner in which the EO rejected it. Would that be too much to ask?
Blessings,
Marduk