E
elephlux
Guest
I’m currently reading some RCIA readings on the nature of Mary and my mind is having a difficult time understanding why the following line of logic is false:
Mary was conceived sinless so as to have a sinless human nature Jesus. But if this is true, wouldn’t Mary’s parents have needed to been sinless so as to raise Mary with a sinless (human) nature too? And so on and so forth…? How could Mary’s parents been stained with original sin, and still successfully raise a sinless child? How can sinful parents hand a nature to their child they do not have?
Thanks in advance…
Mary was conceived sinless so as to have a sinless human nature Jesus. But if this is true, wouldn’t Mary’s parents have needed to been sinless so as to raise Mary with a sinless (human) nature too? And so on and so forth…? How could Mary’s parents been stained with original sin, and still successfully raise a sinless child? How can sinful parents hand a nature to their child they do not have?
Thanks in advance…