
I have actually been somewhat amused by this thread from the beginning because of the two interpretations to the OP’s question.
The question in the title of the thread is ambiguous in meaning although given the subject matter of previous discussions in this forum

it is not surprising that it was interpreted to be a questioning of translation.
The question in the actual thread is still somewhat ambiguous but the additional information in the post makes it clear that the question concerns why any phrase of any translation is included at the beginning of a reading when it does not actually occur in that particular spot in scripture.