Why certain words not translated

[JRKH]

Why are certain words not translated when translating the Bible.

I refer firstly to the term “Christ”. From the Greek Christos I believe and means the anointed one.

Another term is Gospel. This is from Old English and means good tidings. The Greek word also means good news or good tidings.

The problem is that these terms take on meanings in our modern world that weren’t intended in the origional. For instance, How could Pauls reference to “The Gospel” possibly refer to Mathew, Mark and company when those testimonies hadn’t been written yet?

James

 

[Newchasm]

The problem is that these terms take on meanings in our modern world that weren’t intended in the origional. For instance, How could Pauls reference to “The Gospel” possibly refer to Mathew, Mark and company when those testimonies hadn’t been written yet?

James

First, Sometimes it is redundant if you know what is within the word ‘Christ’. Even if it is translated correctly, We shouldn’t translate ‘rodent’ as “a small mammalian creature.”

Second, I have problems with certain words and phrases from how others have used them. They pick up baggage all the time, even in christian circles. There is some fullerism and charismatic stuff about the “kingdom of God” that I hate linked to the term. It does not make me look for a new term or phase but to understand the first one more correctly in conjunction with the bible’s use.

It is sometimes helpful to keep from breaking apart idioms and words even if they do pick up baggage to keep something from being arduously long and being piecemailed together.

 

[Verbum]

Hi, JRKH,

As for Christ, we took it from the Latin Christus, which was from the Greek, as you say, and is the Greek way of saying Messiah, which means Anointed (or King Priest).

Christus appears in the first century among pagan authors, who probably first heard it in Greek. It probably spread before even the Gospels were written. So when they were written and translated into Latin, they used Christus, a term that everybody was already using.

Gospel was originally a literal translation of “evangelion” and became part of the English language. Again, it came into general use and that is why modern translators use it.

Some priests use “Good Tidings” instead of Gospel when they read the text. I am sure they would be severely criticized by our online conservatives, vulgatists and other tridentisnists.

Verbum

 

[JRKH]

Hi, JRKH,

As for Christ, we took it from the Latin Christus, which was from the Greek, as you say, and is the Greek way of saying Messiah, which means Anointed (or King Priest).

Christus appears in the first century among pagan authors, who probably first heard it in Greek. It probably spread before even the Gospels were written. So when they were written and translated into Latin, they used Christus, a term that everybody was already using.

Thanks for the correction on the Latin/Greek issue. My apologies for my ignorance.

Gospel was originally a literal translation of “evangelion” and became part of the English language. Again, it came into general use and that is why modern translators use it.

Yes modern translators use it even though I know od no one who would walk into a room and declare, “I have gospel - It’s a boy!!”, over the birth of their child. So why do they do it?

I have seen time and again where epistles are quoted using the term Gospel and then the reader automatically assumes it means the four books of Jsus ministry.

Some priests use “Good Tidings” instead of Gospel when they read the text. I am sure they would be severely criticized by our online conservatives, vulgatists and other tridentisnists.

Verbum

I realize I am spitting the wind here because the translations won’t change, but it saddens me when we talk about accurate interpretations and the translations are flawed. If the books are to be translated then lets translate them - period.

James

 

[pyropam]

For instance, How could Pauls reference to “The Gospel” possibly refer to Mathew, Mark and company when those testimonies hadn’t been written yet?

James

Paul refers to “The Gospel” as the words of Christ. We have a written account of his words in Mathew, Mark, Luke, John.

 

[Andruschak]

Why are certain words not translated when translating the Bible.

I refer firstly to the term “Christ”. From the Greek Christos I believe and means the anointed one.

Another term is Gospel. This is from Old English and means good tidings. The Greek word also means good news or good tidings.

The problem is that these terms take on meanings in our modern world that weren’t intended in the origional. For instance, How could Pauls reference to “The Gospel” possibly refer to Mathew, Mark and company when those testimonies hadn’t been written yet?

James

I find it laughable the way many translations have Bowdlerized Jesus’s very explicit words. For Example, in MATT 19, verse 11.

In the Greek, Jesus used the word “eunuch” 3 times. Early translations, like the KJV, kept this word. But commentators INSISTED that Jesus meant “celibacy” when he used the word “eunuch”. So modern translations drop the word “eunuch”. It makes people uncomfortable.

 

[Verbum]

Hi JKRH,

If I may be so bold, I think you are a bit sensitive. Translators have to take into account the evolution of language, society as well as theology. For example, the Greek word for “grace” is “charis”, which actually means “favor”. This was translated into Latin as “gratia”, which means the same thing. Now if we translated this word consistently as “favor”, we would not be doing it justice, because we know from theology that it can mean much more.

Some individuals have produced word for word translations that do what you are looking for. They could be useful for some purposes, but not for a full understanding of Scripture.

Verbum

 

[JRKH]

Hi JKRH,

If I may be so bold, I think you are a bit sensitive. Translators have to take into account the evolution of language, society as well as theology. For example, the Greek word for “grace” is “charis”, which actually means “favor”. This was translated into Latin as “gratia”, which means the same thing. Now if we translated this word consistently as “favor”, we would not be doing it justice, because we know from theology that it can mean much more.

Some individuals have produced word for word translations that do what you are looking for. They could be useful for some purposes, but not for a full understanding of Scripture.

Verbum

Oh don’t worry about my sensitivity. I’ve got a pretty thick skin. Besides If one asks the question, one needs to be prepared for the answers so long as they are, like yours, respectful.
I’m not one to try and disect things too much, it’s just that certain things jump out and I’d like to discourse on them. Besides it helps get everyone thinking and that is often good.

I totally agree that translators have to take into account how language evolves and I would agree that grace probably carries a more accurate sense of what is meant than favor. I can just imagine the interpretations if “favor” was used.
However given that Gospel is an “Old English” term, hasn’t the language evolved away from it? Shouldn’t they translate it as Good News or Glad Tidings?

Peace

James

 

[Verbum]

Hi James,

Well, even in the New Testament you can see the term evolving, from “euaggelion” meaning “good tidings” to “the compendium of teachings about Jesus Christ”.

For example here is Galatians 1,9:

But even if we, or an angel from heaven, should preach to you a gospel contrary to what we have preached to you, he is to be accursed

Wouild you want to replace “gospel” by “good news”.?

Verbum

 

[JRKH]

Hi James,

Well, even in the New Testament you can see the term evolving, from “euaggelion” meaning “good tidings” to “the compendium of teachings about Jesus Christ”.

For example here is Galatians 1,9:

But even if we, or an angel from heaven, should preach to you a **gospel **contrary to what we have preached to you, he is to be accursed

Wouild you want to replace “gospel” by “good news”.?

Verbum

I don’t know. Did the origional Greek use the term euaggelion?

Lets jsut see what it looks like:

But even if we, or an angel from heaven, should preach to you a good news contrary to what we have preached to you, he is to be accursed

If the entire volume was thus translated, would it destroy the meaning, or would it be understood in the context?

James

 

[Manfred]

Some priests use “Good Tidings” instead of Gospel when they read the text. I am sure they would be severely criticized by our online conservatives, Vulgatists and other Tridentinists.

Verbum

Got that right we would!

A deacon at a parish in our area used to say after reading the GOSPEL, “And this is the Good News of the Lord!” With a distinctive Bostonian accent, no less ("… of the Lod").