C
CommonWeal
Guest
I was writing last night and stumbled on a question. According to the Church, man’s nature was perfect before the Fall. He was free from concupiscence, that is, his sensitive appetite was perfectly subject to reason. If that is true, then his deliberate sin could not have been the product of concupiscence. What, then, is the cause of Adam’s sin?
The Catechism states: “Man, tempted by the devil, let his trust in his Creator die in his heart and, abusing his freedom, disobeyed God’s command. This is what man’s first sin consisted of.”
I’m not sure I understand this or find it satisfactory. Can anyone offer any guidance? Does St. Thomas Aquinas answer this question?
Sincerely,
Common
The Catechism states: “Man, tempted by the devil, let his trust in his Creator die in his heart and, abusing his freedom, disobeyed God’s command. This is what man’s first sin consisted of.”
I’m not sure I understand this or find it satisfactory. Can anyone offer any guidance? Does St. Thomas Aquinas answer this question?
Sincerely,
Common