There is no need to restrict this type of argument to God. And the term “omnibenevolent” is undefined. I would like to put it into somewhat different terms:
- Entity “A” is assumed benevolent. (Hypothesis)
- Entity “A” did / allowed “X”
- doing / allowing “X” is not the sign of benevolence.
Your conclusion:
4) The facts contradict the hypothesis, too bad for the facts.
My conclusion:
4) The facts contradict the hypothesis: therefore Entity “A” is not benevolent.
If the evidence contradicts the premise, the premise / hypothesis must be discarded or modified.
sure, but you are simply ***stipulating ***that 3 is true (or, in your language, “a fact”); but the truth of (3) is precisely what’s in question. so you’re
begging the question.
more simply, i reject your premise 3: it is simply
not a “fact” of any kind that the kinds of events you’re talking about are necessarily the result of an unrectifiable divine will.
areista:
I did not reject the premise, I just showed that the experiment contradicts the premise. A rational observer discards / modifies the premise. An irrational one pretends that the experiment never happend.
you “showed” no such thing: per my above, you simply
stated that it is a fact that god must be doing evil.
ateista:
That is called the fallacy of “argumentum ad ignoratiam”.
wow. you need to brush up on your informal fallacies, my friend…
you’re the one making the argument from ignorance, not me…
look, your reasoning is that there can’t be a good reason for god to allow suffering, because we don’t know what it is. more formally, you are claiming that the proposition “we don’t know what good comes from suffering” entails that the proposition “good comes from suffering” is false.
now here’s a serviceable enough explanation of
argumentum ad ignorantiam :
The two most common forms of the argument from ignorance, both fallacious can be reduced to the following form:
- Something is currently unexplained or insufficiently understood or explained, so it is not (or must not be) true.
- Because there appears to be a lack of evidence for one hypothesis, another chosen hypothesis is therefore considered proven.
An adage regarding this fallacy from the philosophy of science is that “absence of evidence is not proof of absence”: Not having evidence for something is not proof that something is not or cannot be true. Similarly, merely not having evidence for a particular proposition is not proof that an alternative proposition is instead the case.
sound familiar?
i wasn’t even
making an argument, man - i was actually asking you why you believed that ignorance of some benefit entailed that no such benefit existed…
ateista:
Because it is only the person involved who is entitled to make that call. Many people are willing to endure someone else’s suffering, and that is hypocritical.
right. i’ll keep that in mind next time my son complains that something i’m making him do for his own good (eat vegetables; go to school; share; be polite) is too much suffering to endure.
ateista:
That is (again) called the fallacy of “argumentum ad ignoratiam”.
and you are (again) completely wrong; it is you who are (again) committing precisely the informal fallacy of which you accuse me.
i was simply (again) asking you why you seem to believe that absence of evidence entails evidence of absence.
ateista:
Intent has nothing to do with it.
you should tell the legislators that the basis for criminal and tort law - i.e. the intent of the person committing the deed - is wrong. you’re a revolutionary.
look, even a dog knows the difference between being tripped over and being kicked…
ateista:
Knowing that the suffering exists, that it serves no higher purpose, and still allowing it to happen - that is evil.
sure. ***if ***that’s what god knows - namely that there’s no good coming from the suffering he allows. but whether or not that’s what god knows
is precisely the question.
ateista:
If what you said up here is your answer, then it is inadequate: “argument from ignorance” is just another fallacy.
Of course all this could be solved in a second: if God truly has valid reasons for that baby’s suffering, he can just enlighten us about those reasons, for example by implanting them into your mind, and then you could argue for him. Since it does not happen, we are free to draw our conclusions. I will draw mine based upon reason, you will draw yours based upon your faith.
speaking of arguing from ignorance, here you go (again)…
i’ll ask you again: why is god obliged to tell us the reasons for the suffering that he allows to exist?