E
Epistemes
Guest
Yet again I am troubled by a passage from the OT.
In 2 Samuel 24, specifically verse 1 and its consequence in verses 10-16, we read about how God incited David “against the Israelites by prompting him to number Israel and Judah” yet after David does this sinful act (and why it is sinful, I don’t know) God delivers a pestilence killing 70,000 people – yet David, who is the sinner, remains untouched (yet again).
This passage presents a horribly complex theological problem. First, why does God incite David to sin? 1 Chronicles 21 revises this story attributing the incitement to Satan, thereby reflecting a changed theological outlook of post-exilic Israel, suggesting that the Israelites once deemed God to be the author of good and evil, but this presents a whole host of further problems, not the least of which affects biblical inspiration. If God is the author of all Scripture, then why such a blatant abrogation? Many Jewish and Christian commentators have taken it upon themselves to superimpose 1 Chronicles 21:1 on top of 2 Samuel 24:1, suggesting that the subject “he” to the verb “incited” refers to Satan, not God; however, not only is this notion grammatically untenable since the common reader will never infer that Satan is the subject of the verb, but 1 Chronicles 21:1 will not always be read immediately after reading the account in 2 Samuel (or at all), therefore I am forced to ask why God would allow such a slander against his name remain in print?
Secondly, why is the census considered so wrongfully sinful?
I echo with Matthew Henry: What harm was there in it? Did not Moses twice number the people without any crime? Does not political arithmetic come in among the other policies of a prince? Should not the shepherd know the number of his sheep? … It is certain that it was a sin, and a great sin; but where the evil of it lay is not so certain.
In my opinion, if God’s anger flared against Israel and Judah, and for good reason, then why not just say it was for such and such a reason (most likely idolatry) rather than inciting David to commit a sin, for which he personally is never punished?
In 2 Samuel 24, specifically verse 1 and its consequence in verses 10-16, we read about how God incited David “against the Israelites by prompting him to number Israel and Judah” yet after David does this sinful act (and why it is sinful, I don’t know) God delivers a pestilence killing 70,000 people – yet David, who is the sinner, remains untouched (yet again).
This passage presents a horribly complex theological problem. First, why does God incite David to sin? 1 Chronicles 21 revises this story attributing the incitement to Satan, thereby reflecting a changed theological outlook of post-exilic Israel, suggesting that the Israelites once deemed God to be the author of good and evil, but this presents a whole host of further problems, not the least of which affects biblical inspiration. If God is the author of all Scripture, then why such a blatant abrogation? Many Jewish and Christian commentators have taken it upon themselves to superimpose 1 Chronicles 21:1 on top of 2 Samuel 24:1, suggesting that the subject “he” to the verb “incited” refers to Satan, not God; however, not only is this notion grammatically untenable since the common reader will never infer that Satan is the subject of the verb, but 1 Chronicles 21:1 will not always be read immediately after reading the account in 2 Samuel (or at all), therefore I am forced to ask why God would allow such a slander against his name remain in print?
Secondly, why is the census considered so wrongfully sinful?
I echo with Matthew Henry: What harm was there in it? Did not Moses twice number the people without any crime? Does not political arithmetic come in among the other policies of a prince? Should not the shepherd know the number of his sheep? … It is certain that it was a sin, and a great sin; but where the evil of it lay is not so certain.
In my opinion, if God’s anger flared against Israel and Judah, and for good reason, then why not just say it was for such and such a reason (most likely idolatry) rather than inciting David to commit a sin, for which he personally is never punished?