Why did Jesus baptize?

[WesleyF]

We have been buried with him by baptism into death. (Rom 6:3)

Jesus baptized (John 3:22) and he had not yet died at that time. So what was the purpose of his baptism? Was it a trinitarian baptism? If not, were the disciples rebaptized with water after the death and resurrection of Christ?

 

[Nita]

As John notes in 4:2, (*Though Jesus Himself did not baptize, but His disciples)*it wasn’t actually Jesus who baptized, but His disciples.

Here is the footnote from the Haydock Bible commentary on John 4:2:
St. Chrysostom thinks that this baptism, given by the disciples of Christ, did not at all differ from the baptism of St. John; both, in his opinion, being used to prepare the people for Christ; but Alcuin interrets it otherwise. Some will ask, says he, whether the Holy Ghost was given by this baptism, since it is said the Holy Ghost was not yet given because Jesus was not yet glorified. To this we answer: that the Holy Ghost was given, though not in that manifest manner as after the ascension; for as Christ, as man, had always the Holy Ghost residing within him, and yet after his baptism received the Holy Ghost, coming upon him in a visible manner, in the shape of a dove; so before the manifest and public descent of the Holy Ghost, all the saints were his hidden temples. S. Thos. Aquinas.

You can access the Haydock online at haydock1859.tripod.com/

 

[lifesmom]

As John notes in 4:2, (*Though Jesus Himself did not baptize, but His disciples)*it wasn’t actually Jesus who baptized, but His disciples.

Here is the footnote from the Haydock Bible commentary on John 4:2:
St. Chrysostom thinks that this baptism, given by the disciples of Christ, did not at all differ from the baptism of St. John; both, in his opinion, being used to prepare the people for Christ; but Alcuin interrets it otherwise. Some will ask, says he, whether the Holy Ghost was given by this baptism, since it is said the Holy Ghost was not yet given because Jesus was not yet glorified. To this we answer: that the Holy Ghost was given, though not in that manifest manner as after the ascension; for as Christ, as man, had always the Holy Ghost residing within him, and yet after his baptism received the Holy Ghost, coming upon him in a visible manner, in the shape of a dove; so before the manifest and public descent of the Holy Ghost, all the saints were his hidden temples. S. Thos. Aquinas.

‘all the saints were his hidden temples’ Where does that come from? What does it mean?
Just trying to understand.

You can access the Haydock online at haydock1859.tripod.com/

 

[Nita]

‘all the saints were his hidden temples’ Where does that come from? What does it mean?
Just trying to understand.

I’ll have to guess what Aquinas meant. I think he means that the Holy Spirit was present and active in all of the good people who lived prior to Jesus. We can do nothing that has supernatural merit without the help of God’s grace and it is through the Holy Spirit’s presence that grace is communicated to our souls.

An obvious example of the Holy Spirit’s presence in someone prior to Jesus’ redemption of us, would be the writer’s of the Old Testament., We know the Holy Spirit inspired all the writer’s of Holy Scripture. The “hidden” aspect would be that there was no visible rite that manifested the Holy Spirit was given - not to the person who was receiving the Spirit and not to any observers.

Graces were bestowed on people prior to the Incarnation. Am not positive, but I think the theological rationale would be that they were bestowed in anticipation of the redemption that God knew would be accomplished through Jesus.

 

[lifesmom]

Of course - Now it makes sense. The Holy Spirit was with the writers of the old testament. Knowing that (I, of course, already knew that - just hadn’t put 2 & 2 together) makes it obvious. Thank you for the clarification.

 

[WesleyF]

As John notes in 4:2, (*Though Jesus Himself did not baptize, but His disciples)*it wasn’t actually Jesus who baptized, but His disciples.

John 3:22 and John 4:2 cannot contradict one another. So to me, it makes sense to believe that Jesus baptized his apostles in John 3:22 and later, when more disciples showed up (John 4:2), Jesus’ apostles did the baptizing. Don’t you think so?

Having said that, does anyone know whether it was the same kind of baptism that we receive and how it fits with Romans 6:3.