K
kdganey1991
Guest
Why, exactly?
This. Chapter and verse numbering is a relatively new invention that did not exist when Jesus was on incarnate on earth. As such, the jews would refer someone to a particular section within a scripture by stating the first line.He was citing Psalm 22 by it’s first line (a common practice). It is a Psalm of suffering that ends in triumph and praise:
All the ends of the earth
will remember and turn to the LORD;
All the families of nations
will bow low before him.
For kingship belongs to the LORD,
the ruler over the nations.
All who sleep in the earth
will bow low before God;
All who have gone down into the dust
will kneel in homage.
And I will live for the LORD;
my descendants will serve you.
The generation to come will be told of the Lord,
that they may proclaim to a people yet unborn
the deliverance you have brought.
We MUST kkep in mind that Jesus alone has TWO full and complete natures:=kdganey1991;8963856]Why, exactly?
I thought that natures didn’t die, people did?We MUST kkep in mind that Jesus alone has TWO full and complete natures:
He was, Is and always shall be God
He became Incarnate man; “like us in every way but sin”.
God is Spirit and Truthy [John 4:23-24] But Jesus ALONE is BOTh Spirit and Truth and Human.
God can neither die or be killed so it was the Human nature of Jesus that suffered death on the Cross.
However this passage is to be understood that in Doing “The Will of the Father” Jesus HAD TO suffer and die; **and therefore it is in this PRECISE and restricted sense that Jesus in His human nature call’s out to God. **It ONLY Means that God was and is ALWAY’s In Control; and that that God PERMITTED this to His human nature; BUT His Devine Nature alway’s remained in charge and present TO Jesus.
God Bless,
Pat
Yes, unfortunately this is a common heresyI’ve heard my Protestant friends teach that Jesus was feeling bad for having God withdraw from him. That is not, however, the case as I understand it.
I used to take this position, that Jesus was God and therefor it was impossible for God to withdraw from him. Clearly this cannot happen. God could not more withdraw from Jesus than we could withdraw from our own selves. Jesus is fully God and fully man and those are inseperable.Yes, unfortunately this is a common heresy
That heresy being that Jesus took on all the world’s sin, not just the punishment of sin, and since sin is incompatible with God, that God withdrew from Jesus at the time… that this statement was one of a human being who for the first time was “without God”. The problem here being that Jesus’ natures are inseperable, and that this portrays Jesus as nothing more than a human being possessed by God, whom God could withdraw from at any time… in other words, it is a subtle denial of the doctrine of the Trinity…
Do you then discount the Psalm 22 reference? Just curious…As was pointed out to me on these threads some time ago, I don’t think it is unreasonable to think that Jesus felt the desolation of the cross, and in feeling that desolation he cried out to his Heavenly Father.
You’re missing what I was saying, so I think we’re talking past each other. The heresy which I was taught when I was forced to attend protestant denominations as a youth… Many protestants sects do not teach that Jesus felt desolation… that much would be understandable at least. They teach that He felt cut off from the Father (not heresy), and more, that He WAS cut off from the Father (heresy), and EVEN WORSE, that He was cut off from the Father because He was covered in Sin (heresy which renders Christ an insufficient sacrifice).I used to take this position, that Jesus was God and therefor it was impossible for God to withdraw from him. Clearly this cannot happen. God could not more withdraw from Jesus than we could withdraw from our own selves. Jesus is fully God and fully man and those are inseperable.
But in his humanity, Jesus clearly felt the full range of human emotion. He even went so far as to weep when his friend Lazarus died, even though he knew that he was going to raise him from the dead in a few moments. Jesus despairs in the garden to the point of sweating blood as his passion was about to begin, even though he knew he could summon 12 legions of angels and would rise from the dead.
As was pointed out to me on these threads some time ago, I don’t think it is unreasonable to think that Jesus felt the desolation of the cross, and in feeling that desolation he cried out to his Heavenly Father.
-Tim-
Why, exactly?
He was citing Psalm 22 by it’s first line (a common practice). It is a Psalm of suffering that ends in triumph and praise…
I agree with Evan and promethius. Jesus wants people to think of Psalm 22 when they contemplate his crucifixion. On Good Friday the Son asks the Father why he is abandoned, and the Father (in essence) answers the question on Easter Sunday (i.e., the Resurrection, which is the ultimate fulfillment of the last section of Psalm 22, shows that the Son was never actually forsaken). For example, in verse 24 we read, “For he has not despised or abhorred the affliction of the afflicted; and he has not hid his face from him, but has heard, when he cried to him.”This. Chapter and verse numbering is a relatively new invention that did not exist when Jesus was on incarnate on earth. As such, the jews would refer someone to a particular section within a scripture by stating the first line…
Edited: Christ never took on our actual sin, but rather the spiritual punishment for our sin. He was the lamb without blemish throughout the entire crucifixion.When Jesus chose to take the [punishment of] sins of humanity upon himself, he likewise chose to embrace the totality of the human loneliness that I mentioned, and Jesus’ quotation from Psalm 22 could represent a desire to express this (among, as we have pointed out, other intentions).
No, I do not discount it at all. Jesus teaches even from the cross.Do you then discount the Psalm 22 reference? Just curious…
Understood. Thank you for clarifying. Yes, I was talking past you - a polite way to put it.You’re missing what I was saying, so I think we’re talking past each other. The heresy which I was taught when I was forced to attend protestant denominations as a youth… Many protestants sects do not teach that Jesus felt desolation… that much would be understandable at least. They teach that He felt cut off from the Father (not heresy), and more, that He WAS cut off from the Father (heresy), and EVEN WORSE, that He was cut off from the Father because He was covered in Sin (heresy which renders Christ an insufficient sacrifice).
This heresy is a far cry different from saying “Christ felt desolation”… it is utter denial of the sufficiency of the Paschal sacrifice…
No worries, happens to me all the time! Forums are an easy place to miss nuances of posts!Understood. Thank you for clarifying. Yes, I was talking past you - a polite way to put it.
-Tim-
Well, my statement doesn’t necessarily indicate otherwise. I guess it depends on how one interprets it. I was basically paraphrasing certain passages in the Bible, such as…Edited: Christ never took on our actual sin, but rather the spiritual punishment for our sin. He was the lamb without blemish throughout the entire crucifixion.
To add to Promethius’ post, Jesus also took on the punishment required by the old covenant.Edited: Christ never took on our actual sin, but rather the spiritual punishment for our sin. He was the lamb without blemish throughout the entire crucifixion.
Thank you for the detailed clarification! I figured you were probably taking this approach, I just wanted to be clear for others who might read such statements and not be aware of the sort of hyperbolic speech used predominantly in its illustrative sense.Well, my statement doesn’t necessarily indicate otherwise. I guess it depends on how one interprets it. I was basically paraphrasing certain passages in the Bible, such as…
“Surely he has borne our griefs
and carried our sorrows;
yet we esteemed him stricken,
smitten by God, and afflicted.” (Isaiah 53:4, RSV)
“He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree,
that we might die to sin and live to righteousness.” (1Peter 2:24, RSV)
But to clarify the matter in terms of what I meant to say, I will simply quote from the Catholic Legate’s Catholic Atonement:
“Essentially, when we say that Jesus ‘took our sins onto Himself’ or that He ‘became sin’, all that we mean is that the sinless New Adam united Himself to our sinful humanity in a very real but mysterious way. Yet, this by no means implies that He Himself became guilty of sin – whether our sins of a sin of His own.”
Yes, that sort of thing can, indeed, happen (as we’ve all seen many times in CAF), so your vigilance in this matter is both prudent and appreciated.Thank you for the detailed clarification! I figured you were probably taking this approach, I just wanted to be clear for others who might read such statements and not be aware of the sort of hyperbolic speech used predominantly in its illustrative sense.![]()