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eyeod26
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In John 20:17, when Jesus appeared to Mary Magdalene after his resurrection, He told her to " Touch me not, for I am not yet ascended to the Father." However, in John 20:27 Thomas was allowed to touch Jesus’ wounds (in his hands and side) as proof that Jesus had risen from the dead. In the second case, Jesus had not yet risen to his Father (that would be the day of Ascension which was 40 days after his death), but why was Thomas allowed to touch Jesus and not Mary Magdalene?