Why did Jesus say this in the scriptures?

[adolfo123]

Why did Jesus call Mary (Woman)? is their a theological mean to this like from the old testament? In the gospel of John chapter 2 :4 and chapter 19:26 …

 

[LilyM]

Yes indeed there is. Mary is THE woman of Genesis. Remember in Eden God tells the Devil that he will be at enmity with ‘the woman’ and her seed (notice it’s her child, not a husband or man’s child - highly unusual).

Clearly not referring to Eve, who’d just succumbed to the wiles of the Devil and was hardly at enmity with him - not to mention HER children would’ve been ADAM’S seed, not just hers. Clearly it’s a reference to Mary and Jesus.

Then skip forward to Revelation as well - Mary is THE woman of Revelation 12 - crowned with stars etc etc - gives birth to the ruler of all nations (Jesus, clearly).

 

[Todd_Easton]

This seems to have been Jesus’ preferred form of address for all women.
Matthew 15:28, Jesus addresses the Canaanite woman as “O woman.”
Luke 13:12, Jesus addresses the infirm woman as “Woman.”
John 2:4, Jesus addresses his mother as “O woman.”
John 4:21, Jesus addresses the Samaritan woman as “Woman.”
John 8:10, Jesus addresses the woman caught in adultery as “Woman.”
John 19:26, Jesus addresses his mother as “Woman.”
John 20:13 & 15, Jesus addresses Mary Magdalene as “Woman.”

 

[LilyM]

This seems to have been Jesus’ preferred form of address for all women.
Matthew 15:28, Jesus addresses the Canaanite woman as “O woman.”
Luke 13:12, Jesus addresses the infirm woman as “Woman.”
John 2:4, Jesus addresses his mother as “O woman.”
John 4:21, Jesus addresses the Samaritan woman as “Woman.”
John 8:10, Jesus addresses the woman caught in adultery as “Woman.”
John 19:26, Jesus addresses his mother as “Woman.”
John 20:13 & 15, Jesus addresses Mary Magdalene as “Woman.”

True, it was used as a term of respect in His day by most males, it didn’t have the slightly patronising or dismissive subtext it has to our ears.