S
SAVINGRACE
Guest
As per above. I’m trying to understand why Jesus would need baptism.
Hi!As per above. I’m trying to understand why Jesus would need baptism.
Hi!I see so it was part of all the Jewish rituals he had to go through as a Jewish man? Thank you.
I didn’t realise baptism was part of the Jewish faith.
(St. Matthew 21:31-32)31 Which of the two did the father’s will? They say to him: The first. Jesus saith to them: Amen I say to you, that the publicans and the harlots shall go into the kingdom of God before you. 32 For John came to you in the way of justice, and you did not believe him. But the publicans and the harlots believed him: but you, seeing it, did not even afterwards repent, that you might believe him.
“Had to”? No. Chose to? Yes.I see so it was part of all the Jewish rituals he had to go through as a Jewish man? Thank you.
I didn’t realise baptism was part of the Jewish faith.
Jesus was giving us an example. He did not need to be baptized, nor did the Blessed Virgin Mary, yet they both submitted to baptism.As per above. I’m trying to understand why Jesus would need baptism.
:newidea: Wow! Thank you for another lightbulb moment.Christ became man to heal us. So for the waters to be made a means of healing for us, He entered into them. He purified the waters by being baptized, so now when we are baptized in those waters, we put on Christ. Similar to why he died, to descend to the dead and heal that place too. Also all of the “old Adam” was being buried in the water, and when Jesus came up out of the water, the Heavens that had been closed because of Adam are now opened to us through Christ.
Michael,This can be looked upon.as the institution of the sacrament of baptism, performed by one.man to another
No, that’s not what the Church teaches.Gorgias,
Could it be that what was imperfect, being incomplete, was taken and made complete and perfect by the presence of Christ? That Christ’s presence in the waters takes away sin from the world and substantialy changed baptism at this point, taking the old Jewish form and making it perfect and sacramental. Not that John and Christ baptism are the same, but that baptism is here revealed in perfect form, showing through baptism we now enter the body of Christ, Christ being still sacramentally present in the waters of baptism. Hence through our baptism we enter His perfect baptism.
As he is GOD there was NO NEED.As per above. I’m trying to understand why Jesus would need baptism.
Hi, Michael!Gorgias,
Christ institutes all the sacraments prior to ascending, and it can be seen that in most cases this is accomplished by Him subjecting Himself to become the divine matter of the sacrament. This points to a divine and eternal establishment beyond the material events, that material events correspond to and flow from, and cannot undo.
Yes the Catholic Church is the only possesser on earth of all these sacraments in their fullness and with the authority to administer them in their entirety.
John’s baptism was efficacious, but not complete, because we know that it came from Heaven, which the chief priests were loath to admit, for later it was said that John was the least in heaven, and that he is Elijah, who must then have come from heaven.
The argument is not that the baptisms are the same, John’s was efficacious for the preparitory requirement of repentance, which Christ took and made perfect through His submission to and completion of, we could say sacrificially on His part as He is without sin.
As to remission of sins, we profess, one baptism for the forgiveness of sins, as in Christ takes away the sins of the world, not took away the sins of the world. As he continues to take away the sins of the world through all the sacraments. This does not invalidate Christ’s salvific sacrifice in any way, as Christ sacrifices himself for each of the sacraments in different ways. Here in submitting to baptism though He is without sin, sacrificially present.
That the baptism was made perfect here before the appearance of the church at Pentacost, is no less a greater mystery than that the Eucharist was divinely instituted before His sacrifice and the appearance of the church. That the commission and full form of baptism does not come until much later does not take away from this being the perfect and full sacrament of baptism the form points to.
If Christ being baptised was a prefigurement, what greater and more perfect event does it prefigure and point to? As only in Christ are all things made perfect.
The argument used that the sacraments flow out of the church, if similarly applied to the Eucharist would imply that the appostles did not partake of a sacrament at the last supper as the church had not yet been established, which is not the case as they fully did receive the body and blood of Christ before His salvific sacrifice and appearance of the church at Pentecost.
Yet once the church formed, then agreed all the sacraments flowed forth from her and continue to do so.
michaEl?
Hi, Michael!Peace Angel,
It was enough that a third fell from heaven following that same error, but it is better not to rejoice in this.
michaEl? is as much song of joy and adoration before the Lord, a rhetorical question that brings comfort and encouragement to take hope in God’s enduring love, the war cry of the commander of the heavenly host, a great lamentation of inconsolable longing of the soul to be with our Lord in eternal life that turns to the fullness of joy in the presence of the Bridegroom, rejoice Angel, for who is like our Lord?
Perhaps this is best left here for another thread, before going to O.T.
Peace+
michaEl?