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unshinbop
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Galatians 1:1
Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead![]()
All scholars are agreed that Paul was not content for others to think that he derived his authority solely from those who were apostles before him, but desired others to know that his apostleship was based on grounds independent of the original 11 apostles.Galatians 1:15-20
15 But when it pleased God, who separated me from my mother’s womb, and called me by his grace,
16 To reveal his Son in me, that I might preach him among the heathen; immediately I conferred not with flesh and blood:
17 Neither went I up to Jerusalem to them which were apostles before me; but I went into Arabia, and returned again unto Damascus.
18 Then after three years I went up to Jerusalem to see Peter, and abode with him fifteen days.
19 But other of the apostles saw I none, save James the Lord’s brother.
20 Now the things which I write unto you, behold, before God, I lie not.
I was just wondering, why? If Paul had simply asserted that he learned the gospel from James and Peter the same way everybody else was supposed to learn it, how exactly would this have negatively impacted his ministry to the Gentiles?
If Galatians 2 is describing his attendance at the Council of Jerusalem, wouldn’t Paul’s quoting the Apostolic letter have been sufficient? If Galatians 2 is not describing the Council of Jerusalem, wouldn’t a statement from Paul that James disapproves of the Judaizers have sufficed? The Judaisers might claim Paul was dishonest, but how could they have survived with proof that the original 11 apostles disapproved of them?
And now the hard part: Given the above far more easy solutions to the Judaizer problem, would it be reasonable to say that Paul’s desire to maintain his independence from James, during the time of the Galatian Judaizer crisis, by addressing it with his own theological musings, hurt his alleged cause more than helped?
Why does Paul feel the need to be viewed as an equal to the apostles, when in fact his being viewed as their trusted but subordinate pupil would have sufficed for the purposes of restoring the Galatians?
My own theory is that James was the leader of the Judaizers, which placed Paul in a dilemma: Paul disagreed with the Judaizers so he disagreed with James. However, given James’s status as leader of the original church, Paul cannot just brush him aside as a heretic. Paul must walk a very fine line by both a) providing reasons why the Judaizers were wrong, but b) without directly criticizing James himself, whom all Christians would realize was indeed the head of the original church (James “renders a decision” in Acts 15, Peter would be the one to do that had he been the original post-resurrection leader). The Judaizer crisis starts when “men from James” arrive in town (Galatians 2:10-13).
This theory is confirmed by what most scholars call a mess of confusing greek and intentions in Galatians 2, where Paul tries to explain the false brothers whose spying required him to go present his gospel to James in Jerusalem. Paul refers to to the original apostles as “those who were reputed to be pillars”.
Can you imagine a Catholic who refers to the Pope by saying “that guy in Rome who is reputed to be the Catholic leader”? Paul is using obviously depreciating language to describe his view of James and Peter, but yet, he does not directly come right out and say they are wrong. Inexplicably, he ends up saying they gave him the right hands of fellowship, when in fact their approval of Paul should have been obvious years previous if they truly did approve of him. Hence, scholars continue to admit that what exactly Paul is trying to say is difficult to discern given the dilema of authority Paul placed himself in, and the Judaizer crisis he wished to plug his two cents into.
So, was Paul a heretic for wishing to be independent from the original apostles, when this could not have helped resolve the Judaizer crisis even if true?