Why did Protestants remove the Apocrypha from the King James Bible?

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I looked through the Wiki article on Lepanto that you linked to, and I failed to spot the name “England” anywhere in it. Perhaps I was going too quickly. Can you please tell me where to find it, exactly
England didn’t send galleys or men to Lepanto, they sent money and material to the Turks while making war and piracy themselves on the Catholic powers.
With Harborne’s help, Elizabeth’s merchants began a contraband trade shipping scrap-metal to Constantinople [Istanbul] which was then made into munitions for the Ottomans’ wars with the Spanish and Persians. The metal came from the roofs and bells stripped from deconsecrated Catholic churches and monasteries.

The Spanish were outraged. In 1582 their London ambassador, Bernadino de Mendoza, wrote to his superior, Philip II, complaining that the English trade “is extremely profitable to them, as they take great quantities of tin and lead thither, which the Turk buys of them almost for its weight in gold, the tin being vitally necessary for the casting of guns and the lead for purposes of war”.

Bernadino de Mendoza concluded that it “is of double importance to the Turk now, in consequence of the excommunication proposed ipse facto by the Pope upon any person who provides or sells to infidels such materials as these”.
Source - History Extra, division of BBC World History (certainly not a biased source)

Again, this is common knowledge found with a little googling of reputable sources. No need to ask. Just look.
 
England didn’t send galleys or men to Lepanto, they sent money and material to the Turks while making war and piracy themselves on the Catholic powers.
Yes, thank you, I’m reasonably familiar with the history of Europe in the sixteenth century. You seem to be implying that there is, in fact, no mention of England in the Wikipedia page you linked to. Is that correct?
 
England didn’t send galleys or men to Lepanto
The year before Lepanto the Pope had declared the queen of England illegitimate and called on her subjects to rebel (in doing so, unfortunately, he made it almost impossible for Catholics in England to avoid the suspicion of treason). This was the Pope who was organising the actions of the Holy League.

The Holy League was led by Spain, which was at the time preparing to invade and conquer England and depose her queen – and no doubt have her burned as a heretic.

It is hardly surprising that England failed to send forces to aid that Pope or that Spain.
 
Ok. You learn something new everyday…

From Wikipedia on the Biblical Apocrypha:


“The British Puritan revolution of the 1600s brought a change in the way many British publishers handled the apocryphal material associated with the Bible. The Puritans used the standard of Sola Scriptura (Scripture Alone) to determine which books would be included in the canon. The Westminster Confession of Faith, composed during the British Civil Wars (1642–1651), excluded the Apocrypha from the canon. The Confession provided the rationale for the exclusion: ‘The books commonly called Apocrypha, not being of divine inspiration, are no part of the canon of the Scripture, and therefore are of no authority in the church of God, nor to be any otherwise approved, or made use of, than other human writings’ (1.3).[36] Thus, Bibles printed by English Protestants who separated from the Church of England began to exclude these books.” 😱
 
The Puritans used the standard of [Sola Scriptura] (Scripture Alone) to determine which books would be included in the canon.
.

Little problem though.

Nowhere in the Bible does it say which books belong in the canon.
.
‘The books commonly called Apocrypha, not being of divine inspiration, are no part of the canon of the Scripture, and therefore are of no authority in the church of God, nor to be any otherwise approved, or made use of, than other human writings’ (1.3)
And this was written by a Non-Human ???
 
Yes, thank you, I’m reasonably familiar with the history of Europe in the sixteenth century. You seem to be implying that there is, in fact, no mention of England in the Wikipedia page you linked to. Is that correct?
Check our her link.

Everybody learn some history

Source - History Extra, division of BBC World History (certainly not a biased source)


HistoryExtra

The official website for BBC History Magazine and BBC World Histories Magazine

Elizabethan England’s relationship with the Islamic world
 
Thank you for the link. It is good to read of the wonderful openness to the world that characterised Elizabethan culture. Inspiring.
 
Check our her link.

Everybody learn some history
Read what @PickyPicky wrote, just two or three posts up from yours. Pius V’s excommunication of Elizabeth I was a serious miscalculation. Her response, naturally enough, was to see the Ottoman Empire as a potential ally. But that was only a minor aspect of the impact. Pius’ bull Regnans in Excelsis explicitly commanded all English Catholics to disobey their country’s laws. It doesn’t seem to have crossed his mind that he had no means whatsoever of enforcing his decree, which naturally antagonized the whole kingdom, including the Catholics, who had now been branded by the pope himself as the enemies of their queen. When Elizabeth took him at his word and began the purge of Catholics who were now, by Pius’ action, made to seem to be traitors to their country, there was nothing he could do to protect them.

“We charge and command all and singular the nobles, subjects, peoples and others aforesaid that they do not dare obey her orders, mandates and laws. Those who shall act to the contrary we include in the like sentence of excommunication.”

 
Which books do you propose the Protestants begin putting in their Bibles again? You do know the standard Protestant apocrypha isn’t exactly the same as the Catholic deuterocanonical books right? There are some we both agree are apocrypha and the Douay Rheims stopped printing them in 1752. This is the order they appear in the 1611 KJV.

-1 Esdras (Vulgate 3 Esdras)
-2 Esdras (Vulgate 4 Esdras)
-Tobit
-Judith
-Rest of Esther (Vulgate Esther 10:4 – 16:24)
-Wisdom
-Ecclesiasticus (also known as Sirach)
-Baruch and the Epistle of Jeremy(all part of Vulgate Baruch)
-Song of the Three Children (Vulgate Daniel 3:24–90)
-Story of Susanna (Vulgate Daniel 13)
-The Idol Bel and the Dragon (Vulgate Daniel 14)
-Prayer of Manasses (Daniel)
-1 Maccabees
-2 Maccabees
 
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I do concede the point that they receive correction. I’ve never denied that point, nor have I denied the importance of authority. I’ve simply said that the fact that some Protestants teach wrong doctrine does not prove that authority is needed, as authority cannot be demonstrated to have solved that problem where it exists. I’m arguing for good arguments and against bad arguments, not for lawlessness and against authority.
The answer to this is that any heretic Catholic has to either ignore the authority of the Church or deny it. If there was universal submission to the authority of the Church, there would be no heresies to speak of, and almost all of these would be easily corrected. I will be stunned if you can find me a person who submits to the Church’s authority, knows it teaches transubstantiation, and believes in consubstantiation.
 
Which books do you propose the Protestants begin putting in their Bibles again? You do know the standard Protestant apocrypha isn’t exactly the same as the Catholic deuterocanonical books right? There are some we both agree are apocrypha and the Douay Rheims stopped printing them in 1752. …

Corrected as Follows :

-

-3 Esdras – Vulgate (Modern Protestants call 1 Esdras)
  • 4 Esdras – Vulgate (Modern Protestants call 2 Esdras)
-Prayer of Manasses
.
I suggest that Protestants stop looking for man-made principles for determining the criteria for determining correct canon, which is the Catholic one.

Yes.

Why do you use a misleading presentation of the facts ?

You can find the above apocrypha in Greek Bibles, but in Roman Catholic Douay-Rheim Bibles when they were there they were clearly in the Appendix, not grouped with correct Canon.

You have been greatly misled by Wiki article based on

Pierre-Maurice Bogaert

Ancient Latin lists frequently mention two books of Esdras

They must mean 1Esdras (= Esdras A of the LXX and VL) and Ezra-Nehemiah (= Esdras B of the LXX and VL), rather than Ezra and Nehemiah in Jerome’s translation, because Jerome’s version is explicitly and deliberately presented as a single book

I will reword the above statement as follows :

(It is claimed that ) Jerome’s two books of canonical Esdras is the

(combined Ezra and Nehemiah) in one book and

3 Esdras.

This is false.

Bogaert’s scholarship leaves a lot to be questioned.

With time I will show why he is wrong.

However, if you wish to converse with me on this website you will need to quit using your misleading way of presenting your arguments. Since this is a Catholic website please use the Catholic counting of Esdras as I corrected your statements above.

Stick with the chart below, which i edited as suggested at the top of that chart.
Please.

Thank you ,

John
 
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Because everyone got sidetracked by what was canonical and what was apocrypha etc., I don’t believe anyone ever REALLY answered the OP’s question. I have breezed through the 132 posts, so I may have missed it, which, if so, I apologize in advance.

The question IS WHY did Protestants remove the Apocrypha from the King James Bible?

In my own studies, I have come to realize that this was NOT a “Protestant” decision, but a financial and popular one that “evolved” mostly in the early 19th Century with the rise of “Bible Societies.” These were usually national societies dedicated to making sure every Protestant (even Catholics) could have a Bible, by producing them in mass quantities at very low prices (sometimes even free.) England and America both had very active, commanding Bible Societies. Because there are so many sects of Protestants ranging from the most Evangelical to the High Church, it was necessary for the Bible Societies to drop the Apocrypha for both doctrinal reasons and financial ones. To be sure, private publishers could and DID continue to publish the Apocrypha in KJV Bibles, but their doing so made it MORE difficult for them to compete with the Bible Societies both in price and “doctrinal offensiveness” to the Evangelicals. This led more and more publishers to drop the Apocrypha, unless it was specifically aimed at an Episcopal buyer, or one who for whatever reason continued to want his Bible to contain the Apocrypha.

So that now for instance, the Gideon Bible, left in every Hotel room, politely leaves out the Apocrypha.
 
Because everyone got sidetracked by what was canonical and what was apocrypha etc., I don’t believe anyone ever REALLY answered the OP’s question. I have breezed through the 132 posts, so I may have missed it, which, if so, I apologize in advance.

The question IS WHY did Protestants remove the Apocrypha from the King James Bible?

In my own studies, I have come to realize that this was NOT a “Protestant” decision, but a financial and popular one that “evolved” mostly in the early 19th Century with the rise of “Bible Societies.” These were usually national societies dedicated to making sure every Protestant (even Catholics) could have a Bible, by producing them in mass quantities at very low prices (sometimes even free.) England and America both had very active, commanding Bible Societies. Because there are so many sects of Protestants ranging from the most Evangelical to the High Church, it was necessary for the Bible Societies to drop the Apocrypha for both doctrinal reasons and financial ones. To be sure, private publishers could and DID continue to publish the Apocrypha in KJV Bibles, but their doing so made it MORE difficult for them to compete with the Bible Societies both in price and “doctrinal offensiveness” to the Evangelicals. This led more and more publishers to drop the Apocrypha, unless it was specifically aimed at an Episcopal buyer, or one who for whatever reason continued to want his Bible to contain the Apocrypha.

So that now for instance, the Gideon Bible, left in every Hotel room, politely leaves out the Apocrypha.
I have heard this many times and believe it does have factual sustenance. But to blame the removal of these books on the publisher is nothing but a copout. If the publishers are to blame, and the reason is economic, then why would they not have dropped a few more books. They didn’t because they were not allowed to. They dropped the books that they did drop because they were allowed to.

Peace!!!
 
You are correct! It could have been predicted actually.

But the interesting fact to me is that this was not a deliberate choice, but just the “drift” of Protestantism. It is that same drift that has brought us so many sects, gay female bishops and priests, gay marriage, abortion, divorce, and so many other “acceptable” or even glorified current practices. The drift I speak of is a gradual yet inexorable demolition of Christian values and doctrines. The original reformers would be aghast at what passes for Protestantism today (excepting possibly the most extreme of the reformers.)

To paraphrase Newman, one (which might even include a society as well as an individual) is either drifting (my word) toward Atheism or Catholicity (the spectrum of Christianity.) Protestantism will eventually terminate in Atheism (the Unitarians have already arrived!) No Protestant church is drifting toward Catholicity. It is all about devolution and exedience IMHO.
 
In my own studies, I have come to realize that this was NOT a “Protestant” decision, but a financial and popular one that “evolved” mostly in the early 19th Century with the rise of “Bible Societies.”
If the publishers are to blame, and the reason is economic, then why would they not have dropped a few more books. They didn’t because they were not allowed to. They dropped the books that they did drop because they were allowed to.
If I may butt in at this point, I think you’re both saying essentially the same thing. The loss of the deuterocanonical books was an event that happened in two stages. First, they were displaced from their canonical order and sandwiched in between Malachi and Matthew, which was a Protestant doctrinal decision. That made it easier for them to be dropped altogether, which was the second stage. That was a marketing and cost-cutting decision. I believe the split in Britain between the British & Foreign Bible Society and the Trinitarian Bible Society had to do with doctrinal issues about the so-called Apocrypha, though I’d have to do some looking up to make sure.
 
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AmbroseSJ:
In my own studies, I have come to realize that this was NOT a “Protestant” decision, but a financial and popular one that “evolved” mostly in the early 19th Century with the rise of “Bible Societies.”
If the publishers are to blame, and the reason is economic, then why would they not have dropped a few more books. They didn’t because they were not allowed to. They dropped the books that they did drop because they were allowed to.
If I may butt in at this point, I think you’re both saying essentially the same thing. The loss of the deuterocanonical books was an event that happened in two stages. First, they were displaced from their canonical order and sandwiched in between Malachi and Matthew, which was a Protestant doctrinal decision. That made it easier for them to be dropped altogether, which was the second stage. That was a marketing and cost-cutting decision. I believe the split in Britain between the British & Foreign Bible Society and the Trinitarian Bible Society had to do with doctrinal issues about the so-called Apocrypha, though I’d have to do some looking up to make sure.
I can agree with this to a point. The point i diverge would be to put all blame on the publishers. Not sure there is much blame at all on them but i am open to the possibility of some. This argument seems to always leave the publishers to blame as opposed to those calling it “their bible”.

Peace!!!
 
It was a marketing decision. The same publisher would issue the same Bible translation in the same format, printed on the same paper and in the same binding, with or without the Apocrypha in the middle. Naturally the “without” edition cost a few pennies less to produce, and was consequently sold for a few pennies less, passing the cost savings on to the consumer. Each customer was free to buy the Bible of his choice.
 
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It was a marketing decision. The same publisher would issue the same Bible translation in the same format, printed on the same paper and in the same binding, with or without the Apocrypha in the middle. Naturally the “without” edition cost a few pennies less to produce, and was consequently sold for a few pennies less, passing the cost savings on to the consumer. Each customer was free to buy the Bible of his choice.
The marketing decision was certainly on the publisher to offer the option but it is on the consumer to ultimately decide which option. If the publishers had offered another version without the book of Matthew the consumers would have strung them up. Remember, we are talking about a group of people where their bible is everything to them.

Peace!!!
 
I can agree with this to a point. The point i diverge would be to put all blame on the publishers. Not sure there is much blame at all on them but i am open to the possibility of some. This argument seems to always leave the publishers to blame as opposed to those calling it “their bible”.

Peace!!!
I think you have to look at the evidence. The Bible Societies of the early 19th Century, both American and English (the ones who use the KJV Bible) made a conscious decision to remove the Apocrypha, for the reasons I mentioned. It was unwanted by the Evangelicals and those near them in philosophy, and it was also cheaper to produce books without that section. It was basically a no-brainer for the Bible Societies who wanted every Christian (viz. Protestant) to have a bible in their possession. The private publishers in those times, DID continue to include the Apocrypha (or as mentioned above, made it “optional”,) but it was now becoming more and more controversial. Including it appeared to some to be Papistry. Those were just some of the reasons that the Apocrypha went into decline among Protestants. However no one publisher, or no one Protestant Church has or had the power to rule on the contents of Bibles. The Protestant Canon was settled by Martin Luther, and it basically stuck.

IOW, I am not BLAMING publishers. After all they are BUSINESSES, not concerned with religious debates. They want to SELL Bibles to the MOST people they can. If including the Apocrypha was bad for business they would naturally exclude them. Bible Societies on the other hand are quasi-religious in that they DO make decisions based on doctrinal issues (or at least perceptions) as well as economic ones. So that is why I think the Bible Societies played the major role in getting rid of the Apocrypha from KJV Bibles.
 
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