M
Metamorphoo
Guest
I have a question that I have mulled over for about seven years now. I would be interested in hearing other people’s thoughts on it.
Paul’s theology on the Mosaic Law–that it was no longer binding because of Christ’s work–was certainly radical to the 1st century Jews (whether they followed Christ or not). For a long time, I have asked myself this question: Why did the Jewish believers–the ones who received what Paul taught as truth–believe that Paul’s theology was truly from God?
I would think that any godly Jew would have been like a good Berean: they would have searched the Scriptures “to see whether these things were so.” Since the NT was still a work in progress, the “Scriptures” mentioned would need to have referred to the OT.
Ground rule: Scripture quotations can only be from the OT. It is fine to reference extra-biblical Jewish sources which offer interpretations of OT passages that support Paul’s teaching.
Paul’s theology on the Mosaic Law–that it was no longer binding because of Christ’s work–was certainly radical to the 1st century Jews (whether they followed Christ or not). For a long time, I have asked myself this question: Why did the Jewish believers–the ones who received what Paul taught as truth–believe that Paul’s theology was truly from God?
I would think that any godly Jew would have been like a good Berean: they would have searched the Scriptures “to see whether these things were so.” Since the NT was still a work in progress, the “Scriptures” mentioned would need to have referred to the OT.
Ground rule: Scripture quotations can only be from the OT. It is fine to reference extra-biblical Jewish sources which offer interpretations of OT passages that support Paul’s teaching.