M
mkamoski1
Guest
Dear Friends in Christ –
Please help.
I was wondering…
Why did the Nicene Creed re-translate “born of” when the Apostles’ Creed did not?
That is, according to this link at the USCCB…usccb.org/prayer-and-worship/roman-missal/background/articles-documents-and-reflections/changes-in-the-peoples-parts.cfm
usccb.org/prayer-and-worship/roman-missal/background/articles-documents-and-reflections/changes-in-the-peoples-parts.cfm
…in the Nicene Creed, this…
born of the Virgin Mary
…was changed to this…
incarnate of the Virgin Mary
…but in the Apostles’ Creed, this…
born of the Virgin Mary
…was not changed and is still this…
born of the Virgin Mary
…so, I am wondering, why was one instance changed and the other not?
(Of course, I admit that maybe I am missing something; so, maybe my reading of the matter is incorrect? Is it? If so, then how so?)
Please advise.
Thanks.
Slave to Jesus through Mary, I am yours…
– Mark Kamoski
Please help.
I was wondering…
Why did the Nicene Creed re-translate “born of” when the Apostles’ Creed did not?
That is, according to this link at the USCCB…usccb.org/prayer-and-worship/roman-missal/background/articles-documents-and-reflections/changes-in-the-peoples-parts.cfm
usccb.org/prayer-and-worship/roman-missal/background/articles-documents-and-reflections/changes-in-the-peoples-parts.cfm
…in the Nicene Creed, this…
born of the Virgin Mary
…was changed to this…
incarnate of the Virgin Mary
…but in the Apostles’ Creed, this…
born of the Virgin Mary
…was not changed and is still this…
born of the Virgin Mary
…so, I am wondering, why was one instance changed and the other not?
(Of course, I admit that maybe I am missing something; so, maybe my reading of the matter is incorrect? Is it? If so, then how so?)
Please advise.
Thanks.
Slave to Jesus through Mary, I am yours…
– Mark Kamoski