L
Lampo
Guest
I ask this because it was asked of me by someone I’m debating. I haven’t gotten back with them yet because I need a little guidance. I told this person originally that it is a logical inconsistency for them to believe the Bible is the inerrant Word of God just because the Bible tells them so. I’m trying to establish the authority of the Church with this line of reasoning. The person through this question back at me and I’m not exactly sure how to answer it. My inclination is to assert that that is not an excuse because we DO have an infallible Church now. Here is the question he posed:
As for the church’s authority and the Bible, were all the Jews in the Old Testament logically inconsistent because they believed all the ‘Thus saith the Lord’ since there was no infallible authority to declare that the Scriptures were the Word of God?