B
Bohm_Bawerk
Guest
Why didn’t God (as in, God the Father) give Jesus a name that was entirely unique in human history? Most historians believe that Jesus’ name was quite common for his time, and hence the need by others to differentiate him by his location.
You would expect that the Messiah of Mankind would have a name that was entirely unique and was not given to anyone else. This would conform to Scripture:
“Therefore God exalted him to the highest place
and gave him the name that is above every name,
that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow,
in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord,
to the glory of God the Father” (Philippians 2:9-11).
Had Jesus had a really unique name (let’s just say “zuriogoid”), then the verse would be really meaningful. But when you consider that there were many other Jesus’ during Jesus’ time and even before him, it becomes less so.
Does anyone know why God gave Jesus a common name? Do the Church fathers/St. Thomas Aquinas/etc discuss this?
Thanks.
You would expect that the Messiah of Mankind would have a name that was entirely unique and was not given to anyone else. This would conform to Scripture:
“Therefore God exalted him to the highest place
and gave him the name that is above every name,
that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow,
in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord,
to the glory of God the Father” (Philippians 2:9-11).
Had Jesus had a really unique name (let’s just say “zuriogoid”), then the verse would be really meaningful. But when you consider that there were many other Jesus’ during Jesus’ time and even before him, it becomes less so.
Does anyone know why God gave Jesus a common name? Do the Church fathers/St. Thomas Aquinas/etc discuss this?
Thanks.