Why didn't Jesus outright denounce slavery?

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The world didn’t end when feudalism faded away. This sounds like the excuse the slave owners in the South used; that the involuntary servitude of the Negro was really for their own good.

Let’s be blunt. During the Middle Ages, when serfdom was at it’s height and much of Christendom practiced some form of involuntary servitude, Biblical passages in both the Old and New Testaments assisted in the maintaining of that social order. They were steadily dispensed with as the economies in Europe transitioned out of the feudal social and economic order, and in most countries slavery save as a punishment for criminal acts was abolished.

That is until the Spaniards ran out of Indians to force into indentured servitude, then slavery became a-okay.
 
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niceatheist said:
That is until the Spaniards ran out of Indians to force into indentured servitude, then slavery became a-okay.
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Another Solo-Focus upon Spaniards?

TODAY

Every nation and race on every continent - including the Middle East,
in various manners bring low-wage folks to their nation…
 
There’s a difference between a Filipino girl going to Saudi Arabia to be a nanny and ships filled with people forcibly captured and forced to go to the New World to work as slaves, or ending up being auctioned off to the highest bidder at the Boston slave market.

And the Spaniards started the Atlantic slave trade after they had managed to wipe out most of the Carib Indians. Of course, the British in due course enlarged it’s even as forms of involuntary servitude were being abolished in England.
 
niceatheist said:
And the Spaniards started the Atlantic slave trade
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And Africans assisted Spaniards…

And Africans were deep into Slavery of other Africans.

Same with Indigenous of the Americas…

And more…

_
 
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Speaking about slavery and our current geopolitical situation, it seems that the nature of the draft has its relation with the nature of slavery. Is (or was) there anyone else who thought about this same idea?
 
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