Why do Eastern Catholics not use Filioque in the Creed?

[benjamindt]

If the Filioque is dogmatic, why is it not universally used throughout the catholic church (i.e. Roman rite vs. Byzantine rite etc.)

Is it just the nature of words in english or latin and greek?

 

[Fr.Charles_Grondin]

In the Western Church it is generally seen as a difference in wording but not in substance. The Church has no theological issue with the wording “from the Father through the Son.” The Church views the differences in wording as simply a difference in emphasis.

And as Orthodox Bishop Kallistos Ware has stated:

The *filioque *controversy which has separated us for so many centuries is more than a mere technicality, but it is not insoluble. Qualifying the firm position taken when I wrote [my book] The Orthodox Church twenty years ago, I now believe, after further study, that the problem is more in the area of semantics and different emphases than in any basic doctrinal differences…

• Diakonia, quoted from Elias Zoghby’s* A Voice from the Byzantine East*, 43

For further reading: Catholic Answers Tract Filioque