@chrono, #320: OK, if I understand your argument contra Burke’s position, it is that he applies the goods of marriage incorrectly to the act of sexual intercourse, as opposed only to marriage generally. It is your position that Augustine would not apply the good of marriage to sexual intercourse itself, but that it is at least a venial sin excused by the overall benefits of marriage. Correct? Or, is it that sexual intercourse can only be licit if the couple is specifically intending to procreate?
Burke provides a citation to Augustine stating that sexual intercourse itself is a good, in itself: "And in a later passage he reiterates that he has nothing to object to Julian’s praise (by which he seeks to lead the thoughtless astray) “of the works of God; that is, his praising of human nature, of human seed, of marriage, of sexual intercourse, of the fruits of matrimony: which are all of them good things.” [29] (from Abu’s link to Msgr. Burkes’ article, at endnote 29). Is Burke’s translation of the Latin wrong? If so, where?
Here is what Burke says the Latin is: 29. “Insinuare se nititur cordibus parum intellegentium, laude operum divi*norum, hoc est, laude naturae humanae, laude seminis, laude nuptiarum, laude utriusque sexus commixtionis, laude fecunditatis: quae omnia bona sunt.” De nupt. et conc. II, c. 26, n. 42 (PL 44, 460).
Further, how is this not a counter to the argument you seem to make: { When Julian affirms (as if Augustine had denied) that marital intercourse, with its intimacy, with its pleasure, with its semination, are from God and therefore in their own way to be praised, Augustine rapidly ticks off these “non-arguments”—Dixit “cum calore”; dixit “cum voluptate”; dixit “cum semine”—which are irrelevant to their debate, since Augustine is in full agreement that these are good things given by God. But, he goes on, Julian, who says of all of this (making points which I have never called into question), does not mention precisely what I say is bad in intercourse: carnal concupiscence or libido. [34]} (again from Abu’s link).
Again, if Burke’s translation is wrong, please show us where - - I am not a Latin scholar.
The whole thrust (hee hee) of the argument from notes 47 through 50 is that the problem is lust, disordered desire, seen first in Adam & Eve immediately after the Fall.