I have wondered how Catholic-approved translations of the gospels handle Matt 1:25. My New English Bible says that Joseph "took Mary home to be his wife, but had no intercourse with her until her son was born. And he named the child Jesus."
The King James Version says that Joseph "knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son, and he called his name Jesus."
The New International Version states that Joseph "had no union with her until she gave birth to a son...."
The Living Bible says that "she remained a virgin until her Son was born...."
The Revised Standard Version reads that Joseph "knew her not until she had borne a son...."
Phillips Modern English translation reads that Joseph "married Mary, but had no intercourse with her until she had given birth to a son...."
All these suggest that Mary and Joseph lived as a normal married couple after Jesus was born, sharing physical intimacy, which suggests that they could have had additional children. I guess I don't understand why the Catholic position is to fiercely maintain that Mary remained a life-long virgin. The verse certainly doesn't suggest that, and without mentioning the references to the brothers of Jesus elsewhere in the gospels. And why is it better to live as a life-long married virgin than to be a married woman and have normal relations with your husband? I guess I'll never get that. They seem more like a "Holy Family' if they lived as a healthy, bonafide family. Besides, it seems to make normal sexual relations within marriage somehow inferior to perpetual virginity, which to me is in contradiction to God's first command in Genesis: "Be fruitful and multiply."
Mary certainly deserves our affection and gratitude, but has Catholicism carried veneration of Mary too far? That is the issue between Catholicism and Protestantism.
Merry Christmas to all (since we have 11 days left) and a blessed New Year to Catholics, Protestants and people of every creed, color and country.