Why do people not married in the Church need annulments?

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If two non-Catholics are married and then get divorced, can a Catholic marry one of them freely? Is an annulment needed?

If a Catholic is not married in the Church and did not receive a dispensation, then gets divorced, does he need an annulment to get married again?
 
If two non-Catholics are married and then get divorced, can a Catholic marry one of them freely? Is an annulment needed?
No, a Catholic cannot marry a divorced non-Catholic person, unless that divorced person has their marriage investigated by the Tribunal to determine whether it was a valid marriage or not.
The Church always assumes the validity of marriages of non-Catholics unless/until it is proven otherwise.
If a Catholic is not married in the Church and did not receive a dispensation, then gets divorced, does he need an annulment to get married again?
It won’t be a full declaration of nullity investigation in this case, but there will need to be a determination on the attempted marriage. This can usually be done at the parish with the priest filling out the necessary paperwork and submitting it to the diocese. It is basically to make sure there was no dispensation obtained and that the parties did in fact get “married” in opposition to canonical form, which is required to have a valid marriage (for a Catholic).

There are others on here that can probably give you a more detailed answer, but until then, hope this helps a bit.
 
No, a Catholic cannot marry a divorced non-Catholic person, unless that divorced person has their marriage investigated by the Tribunal to determine whether it was a valid marriage or not.
The Church always assumes the validity of marriages of non-Catholics unless/until it is proven otherwise.
Great, thanks, but why would non-Catholic weddings be presumed valid?
 
Great, thanks, but why would non-Catholic weddings be presumed valid?
Well, there are two kinds of valid marriages…natural and sacramental.

Natural are basically those that involve one or both parties who aren’t baptised Christians. These are valid, although not sacramental.

Sacramental are those between two baptised Christians and the Catholic Church views them as valid and sacramental provided they follow the marriage rules that their particular group has. Many Christian groups have no real rules as to form, but some do.

Only Catholics are required to follow our canon laws since they are not binding on those not in full communion with us.
 
Sacramental are those between two baptised Christians and the Catholic Church views them as valid and sacramental provided they follow the marriage rules that their particular group has.
So does the fact that only a deacon is required for a sacramental wedding have something to do with us recognizing non-Catholic weddings?

Is this similar to baptism?
 
So does the fact that only a deacon is required for a sacramental wedding have something to do with us recognizing non-Catholic weddings?

Is this similar to baptism?
No. Only a deacon is required for a Catholic wedding (without the Mass) because what the Church requires is a witness for the Church, or a dispensation from form.
Of the sacraments, two of them do not require a validly ordained priest to be conferred.
Baptism can be performed by anyone as long as they use the right formula (In the name of F, S & H.S.) and do so with the proper intent.
Marriage is actually conferred by the couple to each other, so a Priest is not required. Canon law only requires a witness for the Church, unless there is a dispensation from form…the Deacon can be the witness.
 
If two non-Catholics are married and then get divorced, can a Catholic marry one of them freely? Is an annulment needed?

If a Catholic is not married in the Church and did not receive a dispensation, then gets divorced, does he need an annulment to get married again?
There may be another option - the Pauline privelege.

The Catholic Church can dissolve a true marriage bond (as opposed to declaring the previous one null and void), allowing the Catholic party to re-marry, if:


  1. *]both persons were not baptized at the time of their wedding;
    *]one party has been baptized, but the other remains unbaptized;
    *]the unbaptized person departs physically by divorce or desertion, or morally by making married life unbearable for the baptized person (just cause);
    *]the unbaptized person refuses to be baptized or to live peacefully with the baptized person when formally asked; and
    *]civil divorce has been granted by the state.

    However, much the same process must be done, as in an annulment so the church officials would probably let you know. There’s also a Petrine privelege covering cases where a baptised, non-Catholic converts, but this is reserved to the Pope alone and is extremely rare.
 
There may be another option - the Pauline privelege.

The Catholic Church can dissolve a true marriage bond (as opposed to declaring the previous one null and void), allowing the Catholic party to re-marry, if:

  1. *]both persons were not baptized at the time of their wedding;
    *]one party has been baptized, but the other remains unbaptized;
    *]the unbaptized person departs physically by divorce or desertion, or morally by making married life unbearable for the baptized person (just cause);
    *]the unbaptized person refuses to be baptized or to live peacefully with the baptized person when formally asked; and
    *]civil divorce has been granted by the state.
    However, much the same process must be done, as in an annulment so the church officials would probably let you know. There’s also a Petrine privelege covering cases where a baptised, non-Catholic converts, but this is reserved to the Pope alone and is extremely rare.

  1. NEWS TO ME …:rolleyes:

    I do not believe that this is true and I belive that you are sadly mistaken … 😦

    Do you have a source for this? …

    OR perhaps you are talking about all 5 TOGETHER and not 5 seperate individual cases … becasue #5 would be just the churches blessing upon a civil divorce …
 
So does the fact that only a deacon is required for a sacramental wedding have something to do with us recognizing non-Catholic weddings?
The priest or deacon is merely the witness, unlike the other Sacraments they do not confer the Sacrament. The couple confers the Sacrament upon each other.

Therefore, two baptized non-Catholics contract marriage validly by giving and receiving each other’s consent and confer the Sacrament upon each other-- doesn’t matter* if they do this with their own denomination’s minister as witness or a civil authority. (*The Orthodox are an exception because they have their own canonical requirements for valid form and the Catholic Church recognizes this.)

Same for non-baptized. They validly marry by giving and receiving of consent. But, in their case the marriage is only a natural marriage. It can be dissolved in certain instances (Pauline and Petrine privilege). A Sacramental marriage cannot be dissolved by any human power.
Is this similar to baptism?
Not exactly, but similar.
 
(*The Orthodox are an exception because they have their own canonical requirements for valid form and the Catholic Church recognizes this.)
Would an Orthodox Christian’s marriage be valid in the Catholic Church’s eyes? I mean if a Russian Orthodox person got married, then became RC, would that marriage need to be validated? I have always wondered this…
 
NEWS TO ME …:rolleyes:

I do not believe that this is true and I belive that you are sadly mistaken … 😦

Do you have a source for this? …
Which part do you believe is untrue?

Valid natural marriage can be dissolved by the Pauline or Petrine privilege if the criteria is met.

You can find information about dissolution of the bond in this section of Canon Law.
 
Would an Orthodox Christian’s marriage be valid in the Catholic Church’s eyes? I mean if a Russian Orthodox person got married, then became RC, would that marriage need to be validated? I have always wondered this…
If they married according to their own caon law, it would be valid provided there were no other impediments.

Remember, the Orthodox allow divorce in certain instances. So, it is *possible *that a person who had contracted a second marriage that the *Orthodox *consider to be valid would not be viewed as valid by the *Catholic *Church even though they married in the proper *Orthodox *form. But, I don’t know a whole lot about the Orthodox and their church law.

So, in a simple case the answer is, yes, it would be valid.
 
Would an Orthodox Christian’s marriage be valid in the Catholic Church’s eyes? I mean if a Russian Orthodox person got married, then became RC, would that marriage need to be validated? I have always wondered this…
The Orthodox have valid sacraments so nothing else needs to be done about the marriage.
 
YADA, if you don’t know about something you might try looking it up, instead of calling someone mistaken. However, for your convenience, from the Catholic Encylcopedia entry under Divorce in Moral Theology, we have:

Non-Christian marriage can be dissolved by absolute divorce under certain circumstances in favour of the Faith.
  1. The Pauline Privilege
The Magna Charta in favour of Christian faith is contained in the words of the Apostle, I Cor., vii, 12-15: “If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she consent to dwell with him, let him not put her away. And if any woman hath a husband that believeth not, and he consent to dwell with her, let her not put away her husband. For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the believing wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the believing husband: otherwise your children should be unclean; but now they are holy. But if the unbeliever depart, let him depart. For a brother or sister is not under servitude in such cases. But God hath called us in peace.” (On the interpretation of these words see Cornely on I Cor., 175 sqq.). The exegetical controversy, as to whether these words are dependent on the proceeding sentence, “For to the rest I speak, not the Lord”, or whether that sentence refers to the one preceding it, is of no importance in this question. In the first supposition, we should seem to have here an ordinance which is not immediately Divine, but was established by the Apostle through the power of Christ. In the second supposition, it may be an immediately Divine ordinance.

These words of the Apostle tell us that in all cases when one of the married parties have received the Christian Faith, and the other remains an infidel and is not willing to live in peace with the Christian, the believer is not bound but is free. The Apostle does not indeed say expressly and formally that the marriage bond has been dissolved, but if it were not at least in the power of the Christian to dissolve the previous bond and to enter upon another marriage, the words would not have their full truth. Hence the Church has understood the words in this sense, and at the same time has fixed more exactly how and under what conditions this so-called Pauline privilege may be exercised. Innocent III declares authoritatively (IV Decretal., xix, 7, in cap.“Quanto”) that the convert is justified in entering upon another marriage if he will, provided the non-Christian is unwilling either to live with the other or such cohabitation would cause the blasphemy of the Divine name or be an incentive to moral sin: … According to the Church’s interpretation and practice, the dissolution of marriage that was contractd before the conversion is not effected by the separation of the married parties, but only when a new marriage is contracted by the Christian party because of this privilege. The Holy Office says this expressly in the decree of 5 August, 1759, ad 2: “Then only may the yoke of the matrimonial bond with an infidel be understood to be loosed when the convert spouse. . . proceeds to another marriage with a believer” (Collectan. S. Congr. de Prop. F., n. 1312). The manner of obtaining this right to enter upon a new marriage is fixed by the Church under penalty of invalidity, and consists in a demand (interpellatio) made of the non-Christian party whether he or she be willing to live with the other in peace or not. If this interpellation is not possible, and Apostolic dispensation ab interpellatione must be obtained (Collectanea, n. 1323). If the spouse that remains in infidelity agrees to live in peace, but later on acts contrary to this agreement by abusing the Christian religion, or tempting the Christian to infidelity, or preventing the children from being educated in the Christian Faith, or becomes a temptation for the Christian to commit any mortal sin, the latter regains the right to proceed to a new marriage after any lapse of time. The interpellation of the non-Christian party, which must take place before the remarriage of the Christian, must as a general rule be about living together in peace or not, but as peaceful cohabitation can only be imagined in a case where there are no serious dangers, and such dangers may arise in certain circumstances from continued living with the non-Christian party, it is readily understood that the Holy See is justified in making the interpellation mean, whether the non-Christian party be willing to accept the Christian Faith; and in case the non-Christian refuses after careful deliberation, then, as a result of this refusal, permission may be granted to the Christian party to enter upon a new marriage and thereby to dissolve the previous one. This procedure, allowed by Sixtus V, received new confirmation and direction under Leo XIII by the decree of the Holy Office, 29 November, 1882 (Collectan., n. 1358, ad 3).
  1. The Papal Authority to Dissolve a Non-Christian Marriage
From the ecclesiastical decisions that have been already quoted, it is clear that the Church has at least the authority of explaining the Pauline privilege, of limiting and extending it. This would give rise to no difficulties if the Pauline privilege, as expressed in I Cor., vii, 15, were an immediate Apostolic ordinance and only mediately Divine, inasmuch as Christ would have granted the power in general in a case of necessity to dissolve in favour of the Faith a marriage contracted in infidelity. For the entire Apostolic power passed to the supreme head of the Church, and as the Apostle could determine fixed rules and conditions for the dissolution of the marriages in question, the pope would have precisely the same authority. Yet on this point there is a diversity of opinion among theologians, and the Church has not settled the dispute. For, even if the privilege as promulgated by St. Paul was of immediate Divine right, the Church’s power to make at least modifications in case of necessity can readily be explained because such a power belongs to her without a doubt in the other matters that are of Divine right. The first opinion seems to have been held in the fourteenth century by eminent scholars like P. de Palude and de Tudeschis, and in the fifteenth century by St. Antoninus; in recent times it is defended by Gasparri, Rossi, Fahrner, and others. The second opinion is held by Thomas Sanchez, Benedict XIV, St. Alphonsus, Perrone, Billot, Wernz, and others. The instruction of the Holy Office, 11 July, 1866 (Collectan., n. 1353), calls the privilege a Divine privilege “promulgated by the Apostle”. However, in spite of the disagreement in regard to the Pauline privilege, the defenders of both opinions agree that there is another method for the dissolution of the marriage of infidels when one of the parties receives baptism, namely, by papal authority. This power is indeed not admitted by all theologians. Even Lambertini (who later became Pope Benedict XIV) doubted it when he was secretary of the Sacred Congregation of the Council, in the causa Florentina, in the year 1726. But earlier papal decisions, as well as the actual decision in this very case, leave no room for doubt that the popes attribute to themselves this power and act accordingly.

If the Pauline privilege alone be applied, it will follow that when a pagan is converted who has been living in polygamy, he can be permitted to choose anyone of his wives who may be willing to receive baptism, provided his first wife is unwilling to live with him in peace or, under the circumstances, to be converted to the Faith. Hence it is that the answers of Roman Congregations based on the Pauline privilege always include the phrase nisi prima voluerit converti. Now several of the popes have at times granted permission to whole nations to choose any one of the several wives, without adding the clause “unless the first be willing to be converted”. This was done for India by St. Pius V, 2 August, 1571, in the Constitution “Romani Pontificis”. Urban VIII, did the same for the South American nations, and expressly declares: “Considering that such pagan marriages are not so firm that in case of necessity they cannot be dissolved”; similarly, Gregory XIII, 25 January, 1585. The theological proof of this papal authority is easy for those who, as has been said, regard the Pauline privilege as an immediate Apostolic ordinance. For it is then expressly testified by Holy Scripture that the Apostolic, hence also the papal authority, can allow in favour of the Faith the dissolution of marriage contracted in infidelity. The method of procedure and the precise application in various cases would naturally be committed to the bearer of the Apostolic authority. Those who consider that the Pauline privilege is an immediate Divine determination of the case in which marriage may be dissolved, prove the papal authority in another way. Since it follows from I Cor., vii, 15, that marriage contracted in infidelity is not absolutely indissoluble according to Divine right, it follows from the general power of loosing which was granted to the successor of St. Peter, Matthew 16:19 – “Whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven” – that this power extends also to our present matter. Moreover, the successor of St. Peter are themselves the best interpreters of their power. Whenever the exercise of an authority that has not hitherto been clearly recognized occurs, not merely on one occasion but frequently, there can be no more doubt that such authority is rightfully exercised. Now this is precisely what took place in the grants of Pius V, Gregory XIII, and Urban VIII for the vast territories of India, the West Indies, etc.
  1. The Dissolution of Marriage Contracted in Infidelity by Profession in a Religious Order
There is also more, but I suppose this is a good enough start. Have fun reading! 😃
 
YADA, if you don’t know about something you might try looking it up, instead of calling someone mistaken. However, for your convenience, from the Catholic Encylcopedia entry under Divorce in Moral Theology, we have:

There is also more, but I suppose this is a good enough start. Have fun reading! 😃
Yes, well I get that and understand both the Pauline and Petrine privaledges … it was your allowing a catholic to “RE-MARRY” that threw me off in your post … and a too fast reading on my part 😊

Your number 5 alone [civil divorce after a *valid marriage] for a catholic cannot be dispensed with allowing catholic to *re-marry *… which would be what the equivalent to what the church is often times accused of the … “Catholic divorce”

but I get it … the topic was “people not married in the church” and specifically non - catholics … I realized my mistake almost as soon as I posted:o
 
Thanks to all for the thoughtful responses. I think (maybe) I am starting to get all of this!
 
Thanks to all for the thoughtful responses. I think (maybe) I am starting to get all of this!
I suggest you get a copy of the book Annulment: The Wedding That Was by Michael Smith Foster. It will help you understand Church teaching. It’s a great book.
 
Great, thanks, but why would non-Catholic weddings be presumed valid?
Because two people can Marry validly as long as they do soaccording to the rules of their Faith. (and are free to do so according to God’s law) Any valid Marriage between two validly Baptized Christians is a Sacrament.
 
Two protestants married together, that is a valid marriage in the eyes of the Church.
 
Any valid Marriage between two validly Baptized Christians is a Sacrament.
**No, that isn’t true. ** Only an Catholic Priest or Deacon can make a marriage sacramental.

Two married protestants have a valid marriage, but it not a sacramental marriage.
 
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