[shawn34_a;1852308]
Where do you think these teachings came from? Excuse me, but I think they were rooted in Jesus Christ.
And Jesus established not just a Church, but an
authoritative Church (Mt 16:15-19,Mt 18-15-18) that guides us into truth and helps us stay out of sin, and gives us absolution when we fall into sin and which recognized the canon.
I don’t think the apostles wrote down every single thing or word of Chirst. Some were passed on via tradition such as the eucharist. I don’t recall any instance of the Lord’s supper being passed on by the apostles, only Christ (maybe I’m wrong on that. Let me know where it is if I am). Obviously there is contraversy regarding this because of the different interpretations.
You are correct that the Apostles didn’t write down everything, not all of what they taught was inscripturated.
As far as the Eucharist is concerned,
Mt 26:27-28 is where Jesus passed on the Eucharist to the Apostles…
"While they were eating, Jesus took bread, said the blessing, broke it, and giving it to his disciples said, “Take and eat; this is my body.” Then he took a cup, gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, "Drink from it, all of you, for this is my blood of the covenant, which will be shed on behalf of many for the forgiveness of sins.
NIV
2 Thess 2:15So then, brothers, stand firm and hold to the teachings[c] we passed on to you, whether by word of mouth or by letter.
The NIV has a few problems one being its translation of the Greek word* paradosis* which means Traditions…
“But no less disturbing than Luther’s case, is that of current evangelical versions of Scripture that systematically expunge the “Catholic” overtones of certain passages by means of translations that significantly alter the meanings of these texts. Some examples of this are furnished by the Reformed scholar, James R. Payton, Jr., who criticizes the deliberate “de-catholicizing” of Scripture in the New International Version (NIV), a widely respected and otherwise excellent evangelical translation. He illistrates this “de-catholicizing” in the NIV’s handling of a number of passages dealing with two key elements of the Church’s “catholic” heritage: the Lord’s Supper and tradition. He points out, for example, that there are thirteen instances of the term
paradosis (usually in its plural form,
paradosis) in the NT, of which ten are critical of human traditions that have departed from God’s Word. In the other three cases, Paul
commends traditions to the churches to whom he writes (1 Cor 11:2, 2 Thes 2:15; 3:6). Significantly all ten of the negative references are translated by the NIV as “traditions,” while all three of the positive references are deliberately mistranslated as “teachings”—the translation for
didaskalia or
didache, not
paradosis.” (“Not by Scripture Alone” Queenship publishing, Sungenis, 1997)"
But if this is the case, why do Catholics not call for circumcision for it was tradition.
Because circumcision is part of the Old Testament ceremonial law i.e., “works of law” Paul talks about in Romans and kosher dietary laws, etc., that were temporary in their effects. Jesus established a new covenant (Mt 26:27-28) with sacramental methods of grace, e.g., the Eucharist and baptism. He relaced baptism for circumcision, which washes away sin, Col 2:11-13
“In him you were also circumcised with a circumcision not administered by hand, by stripping off the carnal body, with the circumcision of Christ.You were buried with him in baptism, in which you were also raised with him through faith in the power of God, who raised him from the dead. And even when you were dead (in) transgressions and the circumcision of your flesh, he brought you to life along with him, having forgiven us all our transgressions.”
I’m sure there’s many traditions that related to the Jews that were not passed on. Was that not the reason for the formation of the Council of Jerusalem? (Rhetorical question). But I do believe Peter’s teachings were of Christ, while James were of the Jews.
The “council” of Jerusalem wasn’t really a “council” but a group of Jewish scholars who got together to deal with the rise of Christianity. These scholars rejected the dueterocanonicals, but moreover the rejected the gospels of Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John! How can any Christian rely on them when their ability to recognize new revelation had ceased.
James’ teachings were of the Jews? You don’t believe the book of James is canonical/infallible? Again, the Jews lost their ability to recognize and pass down new revelation after they turned their back on the Messiah. Jesus established a new covenant with the Apostles and gave them the guidance through the Holy Spirit, which He sent down in John 14,16, so that when they taught, their words were His words…including James.
Luke 10:16–“Whoever listens to you listens to me [Jesus]. Whoever rejects you [Apostles] rejects me [Jesus]. And whoever rejects me [Jesus] rejects the one who sent me [God].”