Then why did St. Ignatius, a disciple of St. John himself, teach about the real presence in the Eucharist just 10 - 20 years after St. John wrote his gospel?
Was St. John that bad of a teacher?
No John did not teach this. Jesus real presence comes from the influence of Greek Philosophy although denied of course by Rome. Here’s a quote from Ignatius to show how outlandish the belief had become.
. . . so that ye obey the bishop and the presbytery with an undivided mind, breaking one and the same bread, which is the medicine of immortality, and the antidote to prevent us from dying, but [which causes] that we should live for ever in Jesus Christ.
Seems Ignatius thinks eating the bread and wine cause someone to become immortal.
And why were the early Christians accused of cannibalism by the Romans?
Because the Jews in an effort to get rid of the Christians claimed that Christians were practicing cannibalism. Plain and simple. Again it’s a misunderstood teaching.
And why did many followers of Jesus leave him after his teaching on the bread of life in John chapter 6?
They couldn’t grasp the concept of fully accepting Jesus as their savior. Eating and drinking HIS flesh and blood was a way of telling them they should devote their lives to HIM. Jesus also clears this later when the Jews started grumbling about the teaching. HIS response is basically, what if I ascended back to where I came from, meaning what if you saw me ascend to Heaven, would you then believe. HE then clarifies what HIS whole teaching was about:
John 6: 63 It is the Spirit who gives life;
the flesh is no help at all. The words that I have spoken to you are spirit and life. 64 But there are some of you who do not believe.” It is at this point that many (not all) start leaving HIM. The same ones that left HIM were also the same ones who later yelled crucify HIM. Seems they never believed anyway.
If the flesh is of no help then obviously the claim of the Eucharist containing actual flesh if false. But also notice the word believe which is used frequently throughout John 6. The question I would ask back is why did John
not write an account of the last supper. He mentions they were having it but he never mentions Jesus speaking the words this is my body this is my blood. Not saying Jesus didn’t say that because it’s in the first 3 Gospels. But If John wanted us to relate John 6 to the last supper words of Jesus then surely he would have written details of it.
And why would St. Paul write the following if the Eucharist was just a symbol?
Can you sin if you eat and drink a “symbol” unworthily?
Why would he write that you would be profaning the “body and blood” of Christ, if they were only symbols?
Very simple. The church in Corinth was abusing the Lord’s Supper. They were literally using it as an excuse to get drunk. This is the unworthy manner Paul speaks of. He then proceeds to tell them this was the reason for many of them getting sick. GOD was punishing them for this irate behavior.
The other thing to remember is that Paul’s letters were circulated before the Gospels. So this letter was the first written material that contained information about the Lord’s Supper the churches received. Notice how Paul states do this in remembrance of me. In other words eat this meal in remembrance of Jesus. The Greek there implies memorial. If this belief was so important then why was transubstantiation not made into doctrine by any Pope until 1215?
One final point. Jesus use of symbolism and parables is quite apparent throughout HIS teachings. If one were to take everything so literal, then why aren’t Roman Catholics walking around with their eyes gouged out and their hands cut off. Jesus said if your hand causes sin, chop it off. It’s better for the hand to go to hell than the whole body. Same for the eye.
PEACE