Why do we no longer say, "Christ died for all"?

[jayredwing]

I’m confused. Not only did we say “Christ died for all” in the Mass, but that is what I was taught during 16 years of Catholic education.

So, if He didn’t die for “all”, how do we know who of us are include in the “many”?

 

[Fr.Charles_Grondin]

From the USCCB:

Why did the Holy Father choose to translate pro multis as “for many” and not as “for all”?
“For many” is a more accurate translation of the Latin phrase pro multis. This is also the wording used in the Biblical narrative account of the Last Supper found in the Gospels of Matthew and Mark:

Then he took a cup, gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, Drink from it, all of you, for this is my blood of the covenant, which will be shed on behalf of many for the forgiveness of sins (Matthew 26:28).

Then he took a cup, gave thanks, and gave it to them, and they all drank from it. He said to them, This is my blood of the covenant, which will be shed for many (Mark 14:24).

Does this mean that Christ did not die for everyone?
No. It is a dogmatic teaching of the Church that Christ died on the Cross for all men and women (cf. John 11:52; 2 Corinthians 5:14-15; Titus 2:11; 1 John 2:2). The expression for many, while remaining open to the inclusion of each human person, is reflective also of the fact that this salvation is not brought about in some mechanistic way, without ones own willing or participation; rather, the believer is invited to accept in faith the gift that is being offered and to receive the supernatural life that is given to those who participate in this mystery, living it out in their lives as well so as to be numbered among the many to whom the text refers.