Why do we say, Mary Mother of Our Creator?

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Our Blessed mother, whom we call Theotokos is the mother of the entire Christ who can not be divided.

By calling Mary only the mother of Christ’s humanity, you are nearing the heresy of Nestorianism.
The quote you referenced wasnt saying that st mary was only the mother of his humanity, but rather combatting that heresy.
 
Our Blessed mother, whom we call Theotokos is the mother of the entire Christ who can not be divided.

By calling Mary only the mother of Christ’s humanity, you are nearing the heresy of Nestorianism.
:confused: Did you read my post? Where would you get the impression that I disagree?
 
Jesus is a **divine person **with both human and divine nature. True God and true man, but his personhood is divine.
vatican.va/archive/ccc_css/archive/catechism/p122a3p1.htm


IV. HOW IS THE SON OF GOD MAN?
470 Because “human nature was assumed, not absorbed”,97 in the mysterious union of the Incarnation, the Church was led over the course of centuries to confess the full reality of Christ’s human soul, with its operations of intellect and will, and of his human body. In parallel fashion, she had to recall on each occasion that Christ’s human nature belongs, as his own, to the divine person of the Son of God, who assumed it. Everything that Christ is and does in this nature derives from “one of the Trinity”. The Son of God therefore communicates to his humanity his own personal mode of existence in the Trinity. In his soul as in his body, Christ thus expresses humanly the divine ways of the Trinity:98
 
Perhaps most beneficial for us to ponder:
God, who creates all things, and can do as he wills in all things,
entrusts and espouses himself to a poor Jewish woman, in order that he might accomplish our way to salvation. He gives himself fully to us through her.
For us to know Christ, it is essential to know this woman whom God himself created and chose as the mold for his own flesh.
 
vatican.va/archive/ccc_css/archive/catechism/p122a3p2.htm
Mary’s divine motherhood
495 Called in the Gospels “the mother of Jesus”, Mary is acclaimed by Elizabeth, at the prompting of the Spirit and even before the birth of her son, as “the mother of my Lord”.144 In fact, the One whom she conceived as man by the Holy Spirit, who truly became her Son according to the flesh, was none other than the Father’s eternal Son, the second person of the Holy Trinity. Hence the Church confesses that Mary is truly “Mother of God” (Theotokos).145
503 Mary’s virginity manifests God’s absolute initiative in the Incarnation. Jesus has only God as Father. “He was never estranged from the Father because of the human nature which he assumed. . . **He is naturally Son of the Father as to his divinity and naturally son of his mother as to his humanity, but properly Son of the Father in both natures.”**161
vatican.va/archive/ccc_css/archive/catechism/p123a9p6.htm
Paragraph 6. Mary - Mother of Christ, Mother of the Church
963 Since the Virgin Mary’s role in the mystery of Christ and the Spirit has been treated, it is fitting now to consider her place in the mystery of the Church. "The Virgin Mary . . . is acknowledged and honored as being **truly the Mother of God **and of the redeemer. . . . She is ‘clearly the **mother of the members of Christ’ **. . . since she has by her charity joined in bringing about the birth of believers in the Church, who are members of its head."502 "Mary, Mother of Christ, Mother of the Church."503
 
Something important to remember is that the Church has officially sanctioned the Litany of Loreto for universal public use. Thus, one knows that it is completely orthodox. So rather than asking if the Church has promulgated something heretical, the proper question to ask is how may I may understand the passage in question, according to the mind of the Church?
 
Something important to remember is that the Church has officially sanctioned the Litany of Loreto for universal public use. Thus, one knows that it is completely orthodox. So rather than asking if the Church has promulgated something heretical, the proper question to ask is how may I may understand the passage in question, according to the mind of the Church?
Yes, and a good way to understand is to ask our Mother for guidance. To hear as she hears, to be obedient as she is, to trust in her guidance. She cannot lead us astray, she always points us to the truth, which is her son.
 
“She who bore the Creator, of creatures in Bethlehem, lived in a cave in poverty” - part of the Syriac Church’s (Catholic and Orthodox) Sunday morning prayer

There are many more phrases like this in the Hymns of St. Ephrem.
 
Hi this is my first post. I view this in a practical way. Jesus Christ is true God and true man. He is the Word that became flesh, to dwell with us and be our Lord and Savior. To do that, He must have a human mother to fulfill the Gospel’s promise. Thus, the Blessed Virgin Mary became His mother. She is thus the mother of God incarnate. We call her mother of God to describe her role in God’s plan. She is not God but the mother of God. By analogy, an engineer whose mother is not an engineer can be aptly described in the community as mother of an engineer. A mother of a lawyer is often identified in a locality as a mother of a lawyer although such mother is not a lawyer. Therefore, the Blessed Virgin Mary is, for all practicality, be best described as the mother of God although she is not God. I hope I am not off tangent on this. If I am, I apologize.
 
Someone can spend their entire lives pondering the Trinity, but even then we still won’t truly understand it. 👍
 
This is worded poorly. As it stands it is highly unorthodox. God became incarnate when Mary said yes, but “God-Incarnate” did not come “into being” as if a new person was created.
If Jesus is True God and True Man, than the “True Man” part, so to speak, had to come into being at some time or He would not be True Man, when do you think that it was?

If you do not think that the True Man, so to speak, came into being than wouldn’t that make Jesus True God and True God?

As far as “worded poorly”, why would you say that?

As far as “As it stands it is highly unorthodox”, isn’t it orthodox to refer to Jesus as True God and True Man?
 
Jesus is a **divine person **with both human and divine nature. True God and true man, but his personhood is divine.
vatican.va/archive/ccc_css/archive/catechism/p122a3p1.htm

Jesus’s human nature came into existence at some point, no matter how fancy people want to dance around something that they can NOT fully understand.

Jesus is either True God and True Man or He isn’t, I happen to believe that He is and therefore His human nature came into existence, just as my human nature and everyone else’s came into existence.

Mary is 100% Jesus’s Mom just as my Mom is 100% my Mom and everyone else’s Mom is 100% their Mom.
 
If Jesus is True God and True Man, than the “True Man” part, so to speak, had to come into being at some time or He would not be True Man, when do you think that it was?

If you do not think that the True Man, so to speak, came into being than wouldn’t that make Jesus True God and True God?

As far as “worded poorly”, why would you say that?

As far as “As it stands it is highly unorthodox”, isn’t it orthodox to refer to Jesus as True God and True Man?
It’s more proper to say God the Word or the Son, incarnated or became incarnate, not came into being - His Being is Divine and eternal, and cannot come into being.
 
It’s more proper to say God the Word or the Son, incarnated or became incarnate, not came into being - His Being is Divine and eternal, and cannot come into being.
If the humanity of Jesus did NOT come into being than Jesus is NOT True Man, are you saying that Jeus is “just” True God and True God because that is exactly what you are saying by trying to be “more proper”?

Are you saying that Jesus just appeared to be a Man rather than to actually be a Man?

Seems to me that Jesus referred to Himself as “Son of Man” so many times to get thru our thick skulls that He really was human, not that He just seemed to be human.

Wouldn’t this be considered among some of the first heretical things concerning Jesus, that He was not True God AND True Man?
 
If the humanity of Jesus did NOT come into being than Jesus is NOT True Man, are you saying that Jeus is “just” True God and True God because that is exactly what you are saying by trying to be “more proper”?

Are you saying that Jesus just appeared to be a Man rather than to actually be a Man?

Seems to me that Jesus referred to Himself as “Son of Man” so many times to get thru our thick skulls that He really was human, not that He just seemed to be human.

Wouldn’t this be considered among some of the first heretical things concerning Jesus, that He was not True God AND True Man?
Tom, no one here is saying Jesus is not True God and True Man; but Jesus is a Divine person. You seem to be pushing away Docetism and embracing Nestorianism, another heresy.
 
Tom, no one here is saying Jesus is not True God and True Man; but Jesus is a Divine person. You seem to be pushing away Docetism and embracing Nestorianism, another heresy.
I am saying very simply that the Incarnation is God becoming One of us in the humanity of Jesus and before Mary said YES, the humanity of Jesus did NOT exist.

The Incarnation either did or did not happen at a very specific point in time and space in the history of creation.
Before the Incarnation, God was NOT Incarnate therefore God-Incarnate did not exist but He Who would become God-Incarnate did exist as Who is referred to as the Second Person of the Trinity.

Mary’s YES was when God became Incarnate, if you or anyone else disagrees with this are you saying that Mary had no say in the Incarnation?

I looked up your “theological words”

Nes·to·ri·an: one of a sect of followers of Nestorius who denied the hypostatic union and were represented as maintaining the existence of two distinct persons in Christ.

and

Do·ce·tism:
  1. an early Christian doctrine that the sufferings of Christ were apparent and not real and that after the crucifixion he appeared in a spiritual body.
  2. Roman Catholic Church . an ancient heresy asserting that Jesus lacked full humanity.
Question, simple I might add, was God always Incarnate or did God become Incarnate?

I am NOT a theologian, not even close, and as far as “hypostatic union”, all that means to me is that some people come up with a fancy word to make it look like they know something more than the fancy word that they have come up with.

Just as I am 100% from my Dad and 100% from my Mom which makes me 100% me, this is how I look at Jesus in that Jesus the human being, True Man, that was born of Mary was 100% from His Dad and 100% from His Mom which makes Him 100% Him, this is how I “simply” look at it rather than hiding behind fancy sounding theological words that even the theologians don’t know how it came to be but they have come up with a fancy-dancy phrase for it.

I look at Jesus’s birth as being like most other human births, it is Jesus’s conception that I look at differently than any other human conception.

I don’t try to pull the wool over anyone’s eyes and pretend that I understand how this happened and I also don’t use fancy words to make it look like I know more than I do.

Using words like “hypostatic union” to me pretty much tells me that they know no more about how God “achieved” this than me so they hide behind fancy theologically sounding sounds.

And as far as what “Docetism” means, sure seems to me that some on here adhere to what this means or I am misunderstanding what they write.

Was Mary’s YES needed or was Mary just forced into what she did?

I happen to believe that Mary’s YES was indeed needed and without her YES, there would have been no Incarnation, any thoughts concerning Mary’s use of her God-given free will in this matter?
 
Jesus’s human nature came into existence at some point, no matter how fancy people want to dance around something that they can NOT fully understand.

Jesus is either True God and True Man or He isn’t, I happen to believe that He is and therefore His human nature came into existence, just as my human nature and everyone else’s came into existence.

Mary is 100% Jesus’s Mom just as my Mom is 100% my Mom and everyone else’s Mom is 100% their Mom.
I’m not sure why you chose my post to go in this direction?
The Church clearly teaches that Christ became incarnate as you say.
Christ, the second divine person of the Trinity, “assumed a human nature” .
I don’t think anyone is disagreeing with you.
vatican.va/archive/ccc_css/archive/catechism/p122a3p1.htm
 
Tom,

I understand you are not a theologian, but those words - derived from Greek, Latin, Syriac and other sources are rich in meaning and not throw-aways.

Before getting into Mary’s free-will “yes”, let’s stick to the original question and answer clearly; instead of jumping from here to there and all around.
I am saying very simply that the Incarnation is God becoming One of us in the humanity of Jesus and before Mary said YES, the humanity of Jesus did NOT exist.
You are correct here and in line with Apostolic teaching.
The Incarnation either did or did not happen at a very specific point in time and space in the history of creation.
ok.
Before the Incarnation, God was NOT Incarnate therefore God-Incarnate did not exist but He Who would become God-Incarnate did exist as Who is referred to as the Second Person of the Trinity.
Again, this is the Apostolic teaching, yes.
Mary’s YES was when God became Incarnate
This is also Apostolic teaching and correct
if you or anyone else disagrees with this are you saying that Mary had no say in the Incarnation?
No one disagrees with this, no one Catholic, Orthodox, or mainstream Protestant.
 
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