Hi Chefmomster, I took the time to respond to your lengthy post. I omitted most for brevity’s sake. If I omitted something that you think I did not address fully enough, please bring it back.
OneSheep and davidv- I hope you won’t mind my response to this post.
I don’t believe you have made this claim before and I feel it is necessary to respectfully refute it if I can.The above statements are faithful to Church teaching. I’ll contrast David’s assertions with yours and with support from Church Doctrine.
My quote(?)
Sin is an offense against God’s law, when viewed by a knowledgeable third person.
Is this my quote? I need to see it in context. Let me clarify: A knowledgeable third person may determine that someone else has sinned, but the sin is not acknowledged by the sinner himself. It happens, often. Sin is an offense against God’s law.
But, doctrine of the Church does not require or define such “ownership”. Knowledge is the awareness that an act they is opposed to God’s law. If they know this they are obliged to follow the law. It is only in accepting God’s will in the matter that they accept and love God. Choosing otherwise is to reject God Himself. It is sin.
Yes, we are back to the definition of what it means to know of “opposition to God’s law”. If such knowledge is the simple “the Church says it is wrong”, followed by “no big deal”, then the person is far from having “full knowledge”. If “full knowledge” is the same as “simple knowledge” then yes, people probably commit mortal sins fairly often. They do not know what they are doing, but the sins can be categorized thus with that definition.
In that case, the words “full knowledge” are misplaced. However, to me, knowing “opposition to God’s law” involves something much more internal, so “full knowledge” is more descriptive.
Point B…
What davidv presented to you is one of the definitions of the Church. Knowledge does not affect definition. Definitions of the Church which are formally declared are doctrine meant to be obeyed as written. We cannot expand on them or reorient them and still call them Church doctrine or Church teaching. Sin is rejection. Rejection is sin.
Sin is rejection, yes. It is without knowing what they are doing in intent to reject, in my observation.
Rejection, is a sin, yes, but such rejection happens with limited knowledge, and, thus, limited will. I do not contest what is written. It is a matter of making sense of it, remember chefmomster?
Point C
If your theory is true, if man can never K&W act to offend God, then no one ever sinned. Not the fallen angels. Not Adam. Not Cain. Not the people of Sodom. Not Judas. Not the high priests. Not the crowd. Not anyone since the beginning of time.
Oh, well, I never said “man can never”. What I did say was that I have never seen a counterexample. We can discuss Cain, the people of Sodom, and Judas, the high priests, and the crowd, because they are all (seemingly) humans of typical makeup and experience. There may be a counterexample in there, but not in my observation. Stories of Adam and fallen angels are not comparisons. They are super-human.
For example, are you saying that since the crowd did not know what they were doing, they did not sin? If you are going to respond to this post, please, chefmomster, answer that question. To me, it was still sin whether they knew what they were doing or not. Sin is an act against
reason, remember? Anyone who acts against reason is choosing from a position of ignorance. Choosing death is unreasonable, and such a choice is only made in ignorance or blindness. Rejecting God, in my observation, is only done in ignorance and blindness. Again, feel free to bring in another counterexample to investigate.
That is exactly the fallacy of your argument. Man DOES sin. This is the explicit teaching of the Church. Therefore, man does have the ability to K&W commit an offense against God. They are intrinsically and indivisibly related.
TO BE CONTINUED… (Take heart! It will finish soon!

)
Yes, I am certainly open to the possibility that man has the ability to K&WRG, but you have still not presented an example of such. Yes, man does sin, in terms of violating God’s law or hurting people/self. He does not know what he is doing. Again, my observation. Do you see what I am saying? I am trying to make sense of it. I am making observations, and my “argument” is in favor of clarifying doctrine.
When it comes to mortal sin, for example, I am guessing that you think the CCC should say “simple knowledge” instead of “full knowledge”.
CONTINUED…
Conclusion
People who knowingly sin, knowingly reject. They are the exact same action.
Please present an example, and we can discuss it. We can work on the definition you are specifically using for “knowingly” there.
I respect that your conclusion of my “fallacy” stems from your own observations that people
do K&WRG. That is fine, and we can agree to disagree too.
Feel free to challenge my observations, chefmomster. My “conclusions”, are essentially tentative and based on my observations. Do you notice my use of the word “possible”?
1706 By his reason, man recognizes the voice of God which urges him “to do what is good and avoid what is evil.” Everyone is obliged to follow this law, which makes itself heard in conscience and is fulfilled in the love of God and of neighbor.
I picked this one out as the most pertinent to our conversation. Yes, everyone is obliged, but everyone does not. They do so without knowing what they are doing.
(cont’d)