Why does God have to follow Reason?

  • Thread starter Thread starter seeker_of_God
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
The questioner begins by asking “why”, so it is clear that he is seeking a rationale for the proposition that the diety is bound by logic. It is almost as if the questioner is using a certain set of tools by which he seeks to show that the same tools don’t exist.

The better question , I think, is whether it is possible that there can exist a construct of reality which is not rational. Of course, we may be forever unable to answer this question because, if it is so, then we are like a fish in a goldfish bowl---- unable to perceive reality as it truly is because of the concave sub-reality in which we are trapped. In other words, how can we possibly perceive reality, if reality is unresponsive to rational perception? Kant and some other gifted people thought it is impossible to do so.

Your friend, however,by asking his question is assuming the universality of rationality in order to question its existence. It is a tautology–like a cat chasing its own tail. It is useless to argue the point with him because the word exchange will soon become meaningless.
Thank you. I believe you are exactly right. If we can’t use reason to know anything about the world around us, whether material or immaterial…well, any discussion is futile. Even to ask whether it is rational is a question that relies on reason, because if it is not (though I believe it is), then no questioning can reasonably come to that conclusion. Very succinct answer.
 
I think that some theories in physics would predict that contradictions, as you describe them, do exist simultaneously. The certainties that you refer to are conceptual, and don’t always correspond to what can be shown experimentally and mathematically.
These contradictions don’t happen in the same way, at the same time, etc. In quantum physics, a particle may change from existing to not existing, but not exactly in the same moment of time, as then the question would be meaningless. If you mean that some things display the properties of both a particle and a wave, then I think we are discussing of a non-determined, vague third state, or non-state, as it were. But it is not contradicting itself.
 
I’m not trying to call into questions God’s omnipotence, obviously, but it is impossible for any being to do something that is logically impossible. God cannot create a square circle, cannot make 2 + 2 equal to 5, or cannot make something both exist and not exist. He didn’t create these laws, because nothing created is self-evident and a priori. The laws, you could say I suppose, are a part of Him, but they could not be other than they are.
I was thinking about this question a bit more today, but no really good answers occur to me. Let’s assume for the sake of further discussion that God does exist and created the Universe. What follows are not arguments I am advancing, but thoughts that have occurred to me today, for whatever nuggets (if any) can be salvaged from them 🙂 I can certainly imagine an argument for God being bound by the laws of logic (i.e., they exist despite his not creating them, and it is an impossibility for him to contradict them).

But I can also imagine an argument for God transcending the laws of logic, because he did, in fact, make them. In the latter scenario, reasons for him not to contradict his created laws (and therefore appear to be limited by them) could include: 1) he is now unable to contradict these laws because his authority on these matters is somehow bound within the laws themselves (would this mean the laws are a part of him?), 2) he is unwilling to contradict them for to do so would be to make imperfect the perfect coherence of the universe, or 3) it doesn’t even make sense to say that all of God’s actions have some necessary relationship to the laws of logic, because the laws only apply within the spatio-temporal constraints of our present universe, of which God is not a part. (On this last point, I’ve never been clear on the question of whether God is part of our Universe or not, i.e., whether God occupies our Universe in part…) 🙂

Under possibility (3), it seems that the self-evident or a-priori nature of something within out own universe might not actually preclude the possibility that the something under question could have been created. If the creation of the laws occurred outside of our universe, and the universe was constructed in such a way as to abide by the laws, then perhaps what seems a-priori and self-evident to us only appears so from our vantage point. In other words, perhaps we lack the necessary epistemological and metaphysical perspectives to understand the origin of the laws, and God’s guidance through our senses leads us to recognize the laws self-evidently?
 
I was thinking about this question a bit more today, but no really good answers occur to me. Let’s assume for the sake of further discussion that God does exist and created the Universe. What follows are not arguments I am advancing, but thoughts that have occurred to me today, for whatever nuggets (if any) can be salvaged from them 🙂 I can certainly imagine an argument for God being bound by the laws of logic (i.e., they exist despite his not creating them, and it is an impossibility for him to contradict them).

But I can also imagine an argument for God transcending the laws of logic, because he did, in fact, make them. In the latter scenario, reasons for him not to contradict his created laws (and therefore appear to be limited by them) could include: 1) he is now unable to contradict these laws because his authority on these matters is somehow bound within the laws themselves (would this mean the laws are a part of him?), 2) he is unwilling to contradict them for to do so would be to make imperfect the perfect coherence of the universe, or 3) it doesn’t even make sense to say that all of God’s actions have some necessary relationship to the laws of logic, because the laws only apply within the spatio-temporal constraints of our present universe, of which God is not a part. (On this last point, I’ve never been clear on the question of whether God is part of our Universe or not, i.e., whether God occupies our Universe in part…) 🙂

Under possibility (3), it seems that the self-evident or a-priori nature of something within out own universe might not actually preclude the possibility that the something under question could have been created. If the creation of the laws occurred outside of our universe, and the universe was constructed in such a way as to abide by the laws, then perhaps what seems a-priori and self-evident to us only appears so from our vantage point. In other words, perhaps we lack the necessary epistemological and metaphysical perspectives to understand the origin of the laws, and God’s guidance through our senses leads us to recognize the laws self-evidently?
Thanks for your thoughts.

We cannot philosophically arrive at an answer if the answer is attributed to something created, unless of course our induction (not deduction) is supported by some non-necessary being. For instance, science as it is studied today deals almost exclusively with non-necessary beings. Biology studies the workings of the body, but the workings of the body are non-necessary — meaning, they could be otherwise.

Mathematics studies necessary beings, since numbers have always been, though how we label them of course differs (roman numerals, arabic numerals, etc). But 2 added to 2 will always be 4, and this is necessary. It is not created, or else we could not arrive at this fact.

As a more complex example, if I have a triangle with side A = 6", side B = 8", then I can always conclude that every single triangle in the whole universe, having sides A and B equal to the above, must have the hypotenuse equal to 10, because A^2 + B^2 = C^2. It’s impossible that it should be otherwise.

The difference is this: science studies things via observation. We see a bunch of specific examples, and induce from those a more or less universal law from them. But the law in most sciences does not need to be as it is. The speed of light could be different than it is. The human body could be different than it is. These conclusions cannot be reached philosophically.

Mathematics is an example of something we can reach deductively. Once we know the operation of addition, we can apply it to a bunch of specific examples and come out with sure results. These are also not self-evident, but they are necessary.

The philosophical first principles mentioned in this thread are self-evident, necessary principles. They are not, and could not be, created. Otherwise, how could we come to such conclusions deductively, or even intuitively in the case of these first principles?

I like what another poster said. If reason could not tell us anything about the universe, then we may as well not be having this discussion, as we could not, by reason, come to any conclusions. The very fact of our doing this suggests that reason is a useful instrument in coming to accurate conclusions in universal matters.

Also the thought comes to mind, if God was not inherently reasonable and rational, His nature could change over night; one day He could be good, and another day evil. We could have no relating with Him, because we could never know what to expect.

Yet, despite His reasoning being much, much higher than ours, we can at least see the necessity for Christ’s sacrifice on the cross, as well as the resurrection, and how that applies to our lives today. We can only do this because God is reasonable and we can more or less follow His reason. He does not make random, pointless decisions.
 
Something else to consider… Reason (Logic) itself does not exist materially but immaterial (or spiritually). Just the same for Mathematics, Justice, and Morality. While you can show examples of all these things you cannot actually show they exist empirically. Even if you show the example of 2 + 2 =4 you are only showing an example of Mathematics not Mathematics itself. Take this question into consideration. Can you see Truth in the Physical World?

If this person really believes reason is only a faculty of the human mind then tell this person they are just being arbitary in their own human reasoning and you have no reason to believe them. When they object ask them what they are going to appeal to in order to be reasonable (not arbitrary), which would be the Universal Laws of Logic. 😉
An even more powerful point to make is that there are mathematical truths that have no real physical example. Thus some truths are representative of a deeper reality other than the physical.
 
These contradictions don’t happen in the same way, at the same time, etc. In quantum physics, a particle may change from existing to not existing, but not exactly in the same moment of time, as then the question would be meaningless. If you mean that some things display the properties of both a particle and a wave, then I think we are discussing of a non-determined, vague third state, or non-state, as it were. But it is not contradicting itself.
A couple of things, in general, I’d like to say about the subject question. First, if the Logos is God, then whatever is true of Logical Necessity is part of the Logos. It is perhaps that the perfection of mathematics is a manifestation of God’s perfection. So in this sense it seems that perfect logic comes from perfect love, not the other way around. Therefore, it seems to me, God LEADS Reason, not follows it.

Just my 2 pennies.
 
I don’t exactly agree. Reason can tell us about God, so it doesn’t matter if you are “born of the Spirit,” whatever that phrase means to you.

But through reason, we can reach several spiritual truths. By spiritual, I do mean strictly non-material. The law of non-contradiction is a spiritual truth.
Really? How is it that something can tell us the Truth of God other than God Himself?
 
Really? How is it that something can tell us the Truth of God other than God Himself?
Because God is a necessary being. Thus, by following the effects to their cause, you can reach God in several ways.

See Aquinas’ five ways of proving God’s existence.

There cannot be an infinite regress. Because there is movement in the universe (from potentiality to actuality), and a being cannot move itself, there must be a fully actual First Mover to initiate the movement of all things.
 
God does not have to follow reason! Google,“paraconsistent logic Stanford”
 
God does not have to follow reason! Google,“paraconsistent logic Stanford”
How about posting the essence of the argument here so we can have a discussion on it?

I do not agree with you, but would like to see your reasoning.
 
Because God is a necessary being. Thus, by following the effects to their cause, you can reach God in several ways.

See Aquinas’ five ways of proving God’s existence.

There cannot be an infinite regress. Because there is movement in the universe (from potentiality to actuality), and a being cannot move itself, there must be a fully actual First Mover to initiate the movement of all things.
I appreciate the reference but I’m not talking to Aquinas. Besides, his work has been around since the later 12 hundreds how come all opposition to it hasn’t been vanquished, by the indisputable truth you say it is?

Though one could argue your point on original mover, but any atheist worth his salt would simply dismiss that as the original mover doesn’t have to be a god, nor the God you speak of. Even most theists would agree that the original mover doesn’t have to be God. And both would agree that you can’t prove it.
 
I appreciate the reference but I’m not talking to Aquinas. Besides, his work has been around since the later 12 hundreds how come all opposition to it hasn’t been vanquished, by the indisputable truth you say it is?

Though one could argue your point on original mover, but any atheist worth his salt would simply dismiss that as the original mover doesn’t have to be a god, nor the God you speak of. Even most theists would agree that the original mover doesn’t have to be God. And both would agree that you can’t prove it.
Any argument I’ve seen against it is due to a misunderstanding of the proof.

I had a professor in college who tried for years to find problems with his proofs, and could not. If one is intellectually honest, and really understands the argument, there’s really no way around it.

The First Mover has to be an infinite, fully actual being, or otherwise there could be no movement (change) in the universe. Further, the First Mover would have no reason for being if it contained any potentiality whatsoever. A being with potentiality is not a necessary being and a non-contingent being. So, it must be God. This wasn’t just Aquinas. Even Aristotle came to the conclusion of one God, though his conception of God was different than the Christian conception.

As for which God the First Mover would be, it doesn’t really matter. We can’t get to the Trinity and to Christ via philosophy, but we don’t have to. The point is that it is God.
 
Any argument I’ve seen against it is due to a misunderstanding of the proof.

I had a professor in college who tried for years to find problems with his proofs, and could not. If one is intellectually honest, and really understands the argument, there’s really no way around it.

The First Mover has to be an infinite, fully actual being, or otherwise there could be no movement (change) in the universe. Further, the First Mover would have no reason for being if it contained any potentiality whatsoever. A being with potentiality is not a necessary being and a non-contingent being. So, it must be God. This wasn’t just Aquinas. Even Aristotle came to the conclusion of one God, though his conception of God was different than the Christian conception.

As for which God the First Mover would be, it doesn’t really matter. We can’t get to the Trinity and to Christ via philosophy, but we don’t have to. The point is that it is God.
Well yea, but how do you prove that the first move was according to a will, and not just a movement that was forever. And as you say one must be honest, but that’s not the way of those who would deny Christ or God in order to keep their own life. Hence the necessity of revelation that is of God.

Isn’t it true that God is the fulfillment of all things? Therefore all that is of God, returns to God.
 
I appreciate the reference but I’m not talking to Aquinas. Besides, his work has been around since the later 12 hundreds how come all opposition to it hasn’t been vanquished, by the indisputable truth you say it is?

Though one could argue your point on original mover, but any atheist worth his salt would simply dismiss that as the original mover doesn’t have to be a god, nor the God you speak of. Even most theists would agree that the original mover doesn’t have to be God. And both would agree that you can’t prove it.
Well, the First Mover would have to exist outside of time, for starters, otherwise said Mover would have to have been moved.
 
Well, the First Mover would have to exist outside of time, for starters, otherwise said Mover would have to have been moved.
Not necessarily, movement is a result of energy being executed from one point of time to another on an object that could be space or matter, and time and energy are elements of creation. Besides how can there be a move without time? It takes X amount of time in order for energy (movement) to be. And as we know God is not energy, nor is energy a god. (Though I have seen some who argue for energy as a god)

Also movement would have to be the movement of what? Other than space or matter. And yes I know that the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters (KJV), but is that what is being talked about here? There are translations that say that the Divine Presence hovered upon the surface of the waters.(the Sone Edition of the Torah)(YLT is also similar to the Stone’s) Is that to be considered movement of the first?
 
Not necessarily, movement is a result of energy being executed from one point of time to another on an object that could be space or matter, and time and energy are elements of creation. Besides how can there be a move without time? It takes X amount of time in order for energy (movement) to be. And as we know God is not energy, nor is energy a god. (Though I have seen some who argue for energy as a god)

Also movement would have to be the movement of what? Other than space or matter. And yes I know that the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters (KJV), but is that what is being talked about here? There are translations that say that the Divine Presence hovered upon the surface of the waters.(the Sone Edition of the Torah)(YLT is also similar to the Stone’s) Is that to be considered movement of the first?
You are taking movement in the wrong sense. The movement you speak of is only one sense of the term.

Movement in the philosophical, technical sense is a change, no matter if it entails actual movement through space.

For instance, as I type this post, the words on the page are being moved from potentiality to actuality. As I press submit, the post will move to be actually posted on the forum. When you understand a point, your intellect is being moved to actually understand.

Aquinas uses the example (if you had read my link to his five ways earlier) of wood, being moved from potentially hot to actually hot when placed into a fire. The wood always had the potentiality of being hot, but only actually was moved to that state by something else that already held it.

So, you see, no movement from potentiality to actuality is possible in the universe, without another, outside being already actualized.
 
Looking at the title of the OP’s thread and taking into consideration this post is placed in the Philosophy Forum; IMHO why does “human reason” along with “human philosophy” thinking have to sing to the tune of God’s Ways or Reason?

I’d rather rely humbly on scripture to answer any suppositions in this thread.

Prophecy Of Isaias (Isaiah) Chapter 55 verses 6-10

[6] Seek ye the Lord, while he may be found: call upon him, while he is near. [7] Let the wicked forsake his way, and the unjust man his thoughts, and let him return to the Lord, and he will have mercy on him, and to our God: for he is bountiful to forgive. **[8] For my thoughts are not your thoughts: nor your ways my ways, saith the Lord. [9] For as the heavens are exalted above the earth, so are my ways exalted above your ways, and my thoughts above your thoughts. **[10] And as the rain and the snow come down from heaven, and return no more thither, but soak the earth, and water it, and make it to spring, and give seed to the sower, and bread to the eater:

God’s faculty of Reasoning is Supernatural beyond the pondering scope of human rational.

Peace
Chris
 
You are taking movement in the wrong sense. The movement you speak of is only one sense of the term.

Movement in the philosophical, technical sense is a change, no matter if it entails actual movement through space.

For instance, as I type this post, the words on the page are being moved from potentiality to actuality. As I press submit, the post will move to be actually posted on the forum. When you understand a point, your intellect is being moved to actually understand.

Aquinas uses the example (if you had read my link to his five ways earlier) of wood, being moved from potentially hot to actually hot when placed into a fire. The wood always had the potentiality of being hot, but only actually was moved to that state by something else that already held it.

So, you see, no movement from potentiality to actuality is possible in the universe, without another, outside being already actualized.
Sorry friend in your example there is movement, the atoms that constitute the form “wood” becomes another form “ashes” and “gas” (smoke) so the movement, or movement from one form to an other, the smoke moves to another place in space from where is was and so on and so forth, therefore movement does happen in this case.

As far as typing your posting there is the physical as in electrons moving in response to open and closed electrical circuits. Hence physical movement. If you are talking about what you are thinking is expressed I wouldn’t say is movement. Revelation maybe, but not movement.

If you could prove revelation is movement, then maybe, but in the sense of the word movement doesn’t seem practical nor even correct. The truth is that time energy space and matter did not exist before God but existed before God revealed His Presence in His Creation. And what started anything to do anything that is of any order, is God spoke. Creation had no form was void, and dark until God spoke in His Presence in His Creation.

Look at Jesus Christ, the Presence of God (Holy Spirit) revealed into the world via the flesh and spoke into the world the Word of God. Movement or revelation?
 
Sorry friend in your example there is movement, the atoms that constitute the form “wood” becomes another form “ashes” and “gas” (smoke) so the movement, or movement from one form to an other, the smoke moves to another place in space from where is was and so on and so forth, therefore movement does happen in this case.

As far as typing your posting there is the physical as in electrons moving in response to open and closed electrical circuits. Hence physical movement. If you are talking about what you are thinking is expressed I wouldn’t say is movement. Revelation maybe, but not movement.

If you could prove revelation is movement, then maybe, but in the sense of the word movement doesn’t seem practical nor even correct. The truth is that time energy space and matter did not exist before God but existed before God revealed His Presence in His Creation. And what started anything to do anything that is of any order, is God spoke. Creation had no form was void, and dark until God spoke in His Presence in His Creation.

Look at Jesus Christ, the Presence of God (Holy Spirit) revealed into the world via the flesh and spoke into the world the Word of God. Movement or revelation?
Well, I don’t know what to tell you, but movement has been the philosophical word for it for much of the philosophical tradition. Movement does not necessarily mean literal movement, but it does not mean that literal movement is or is not a part of it.

Here’s a good example. If you tell me something I did not previously know, my intellect has been moved (not physically) to grasp that new knowledge

But the example doesn’t matter. The point is that all movement requires a mover. I’m not sure why you are intentionally trying to disprove this…
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top