Why does Jesus say he has a God after his resurrection?

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Can somebody please explain to me why in Revelations 3:2 and 3:12
Jesus says he has a God. I thought Jesus was “for awhile made lower than the angels” while he was one of us. But after his resurrection, when his angel appeared to St. John and St. John wrote the words of the book of Rev., Jesus says that he has “not found your works complete in the sight of my God”. And then in vs.12 Jesus says, “The victor I will make into a pillar in the temple of my God, and he will never leave it again. On him I will inscribe the name of my God and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem, which comes down out of heaven from my God, as well as my new name.” I am a Catholic and I defend my faith, but I cannot explain this to people who refer to these verses. Somebody please help me understand this. thanks
 
Can somebody please explain to me why in Revelations 3:2 and 3:12
Jesus says he has a God. I thought Jesus was “for awhile made lower than the angels” while he was one of us. But after his resurrection, when his angel appeared to St. John and St. John wrote the words of the book of Rev., Jesus says that he has “not found your works complete in the sight of my God”. And then in vs.12 Jesus says, “The victor I will make into a pillar in the temple of my God, and he will never leave it again. On him I will inscribe the name of my God and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem, which comes down out of heaven from my God, as well as my new name.” I am a Catholic and I defend my faith, but I cannot explain this to people who refer to these verses. Somebody please help me understand this. thanks
It’s a paradox not contradiction of any sort. He also has two natures, one divine and one human. He is One of the Three Divine Persons of the Blessed Trinity.
 
susanj19

That is an excellent question and great observation! I ran onto this one time in another passage of Scripture, and St. Thomas Aquinas I feel got it right. He made the statement that when Jesus makes reference to His God, in other words He is referring to the Father. I will try to find his full explanation.
 
I believe that He is referring to the Father as well when He says ‘God’’. A reason for that which comes from John Calvin (probably many more before him, but I am more familiar with the frenchman) is that the Father is referred to as ‘God’ because He is the source of the Godhead (i.e He is unbegotten). Calling Him ‘God’ shows the economy and order of the Trinity rather than His superiority.
 
Hi Stuart,
It makes sense to say that the Father is unbegotten. But what about before the creation of Jesus’ humanity, taking on a second nature? The Son’s existence, before he humbled himself as man, was also unbegotten. True? I know, as the Christ he is begotten of the Father but it only makes sense to me that God (all 3 persons) never had a beginning. And since Jesus was glorified after his resurrection (meaning to me that he is exalted back to his original Being or existence as God), why would he still say that the Father is his God? This is the most difficult verse for me to try to explain to JWs. Also the verse in Rev. that says “after everything has been put under his feet…Jesus hands everything back to the Father so that all will be in all” also makes it sound like the Father is higher than the Son. I know from months of talking to JWs that they believe Jesus is the only being between God and the angels and they use these verses in Rev. 3:2,12 to say that Jesus has a God after he as been resurrected. I just wish I could explain it to them. I’ve tried every verse that Catholics/Protestants use to prove Jesus’ divinity, but they have an answer (or other reasoning) for every one. And when I explain things to them such as John 1:1 and tell them that in Greek the predicate nominative doesn’t require an article “the” (in the part that they translate "And the Word was a god) they don’t have an answer for that one verse. I explain that Jesus (And the Word was God) cannot be divine and not God. They almost always refer to Rev. to say that even Jesus says he has a God.
 
Also, to me it doesn’t make sense to say that the Trinity has an order if all 3 persons are equal in power. Would you say that the Father has more authority than the Son? Obviously while Jesus was one of us, the Father was his authority; but why after his resurrection?
The only other verse that I have found they don’t have an answer to is Rev. 19:12-13 "His eyes were like a fiery flame, and on his head were many diadems. He had a name inscribed that NO ONE KNOWS EXCEPT HIMSELF. He wore a cloak that had been dipped in blood, and his name was called the Word of God. The JWs like to use the vs. in Matthew that says Jesus doesn’t know when the end time will come, even though he knows all the other details. The verse says “nor the Son, but only the Father knows”. I like to quote Rev. 19:12-13 asking why then does only the Son know his new name and the Father doesn’t know ?(since they see the Father and Son as two distinct separate divine beings).
 
The answer to this is in the mystery of Eph 5
31 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be one flesh.
32 This is a great mystery: but I speak concerning Christ and the church.

Christ left his heavenly estate to become incarnate in order to save mankind. When he married the church-bride, he eternally bound himself to the flesh.

The Eternal God-Son now forever has a body to which he is bound on our behalf. In this sense he may say he has a God. Though he is glorified, he has become like one of us so that we may be made like Him. The alternative is that he returned to his former state in which we cannot participate. God will not share his glory with another. So his option was based in love.

The torn veil, split waters of the Jordan and Red Sea, the Rock that was split all indicate that God was ‘torn’ somehow. Don’t ask me to explain it. But he married the bride, forever. He left the Father to cling to the wife.
 
Thanks, rc.
You wouldn’t happen to have just been at my house? Most likely, you’re a different rcjones who just happened to post after hearing my question at home.
Thanks for your (name removed by moderator)ut. As I was typing in my last reply, I was thinking to myself, “This is the Trinity that I’m asking people to explain. Impossible!” 🙂
 
Thanks, rc.
You wouldn’t happen to have just been at my house? Most likely, you’re a different rcjones who just happened to post after hearing my question at home.
Thanks for your (name removed by moderator)ut. As I was typing in my last reply, I was thinking to myself, “This is the Trinity that I’m asking people to explain. Impossible!” 🙂
I doubt we have met. There are things we will never comprehend, but there are also many things that he has shown to us about himself.

I believe you can actually discern which person of the Godhead wrote which parts of the scriptures. And by doing so actually discern personality differences.

I know it sounds crazy. elyforum.yuku.com/topic/811
 
Jesus often referred to the Father as His God. Notice on the cross dying, “And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?” Matthew 27:46 Do not confuse, Jesus wasGod, John 1:1,14, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.” Philippians 2:6 speaking of Christ, “Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:”
 
Well mostly when I have doubts I ask Jesus to clear them for me & usually I get the reference for the same in the Bible, for what I have understood, Jesus was one of the favourite Angels of God, (The God of Abhraham), God after the flood (Noah) saw the destruction & stench on Earth promised that he will never ever cause such destruction again.but he also realised that Man will never stop sining, So he send Jesus on Earth as human (Now a spirit had to be manifested as human, this if u see cannot be done naturally, hence Mother Mary was blessed supernaturally & we call her Virgin Mary) Thus Jesus was sent with the power of Forgiveness & patience Hence Jesus says I am the Door through which one can come to his father, there is no other way, and once jesus had done all that God wanted him to, God accepted him as his son, the one who obeyed his command. The perfect Son…
to continue…
 
Hi Susan, it is debated among those who are Greek Grammar experts if those are objective or subjective gentive phrases. I think it was AT Robertson who did an indepth article on the topic in professional journals. In short, if the text is a Objective Gentive type phrase, Jesus is simply referring to the book of Revelation originating with God the Father through Jesus to the Angel, then to John, thus talking about the chain of relevation kinda of like a “chain of evidence” among police in a crimial investigation. If it is an Subjective Gentive, then the text is simply speaking about Rank contrasting God the Father with God the Son VS rank among creatures the Angel with Man, John, thus it simply as the meaning of Rank among equals — uncreated vs created. So, either way you read these texts, they do not support the arian claims at all. The author of the word biblical commentary gives argues for the objective gentive here. I can’t remember which commentaries argue for the subjective gentive. But, you can line up well known scholars on both sides of the debate.
 
Thanks, Daniel. Your (name removed by moderator)ut is very interesting but I still don’t understand why the Revelation of St. John had to originate with the Father and be given through Jesus to his angel who appeared to John. It’s similar to the Father creating everything through Jesus. What exactly does that mean. Acc. to JWs, which I do realize is not the church Jesus founded, the plan originated with the Father and Jesus(after being created by the Father) was the craftsman (the one authorized to create, so to speak). They claim God gave him the power to do this which seems absurd to me because all God has to do is speak a command and it is created! When speaking about the Objective genitive in Greek, would it be correct to assume that Jesus could have just as easily given the Revelation to the Father? If Subjective genitive, the rank issue still is confusing to me because why would the Revelation have to be given to Jesus if God (Jesus) knows everything??
Also regarding Wolfwredroses’ comment, I have never heard Phil2:6 stated that way-“who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God”–that seems to give the opposite meaning than the translation (in NAB &NWT too) which says–“Who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped”. Thanks.
 
Well mostly when I have doubts I ask Jesus to clear them for me & usually I get the reference for the same in the Bible, for what I have understood, Jesus was one of the favourite Angels of God, (The God of Abhraham), God after the flood (Noah) saw the destruction & stench on Earth promised that he will never ever cause such destruction again.but he also realised that Man will never stop sining, So he send Jesus on Earth as human (Now a spirit had to be manifested as human, this if u see cannot be done naturally, hence Mother Mary was blessed supernaturally & we call her Virgin Mary) Thus Jesus was sent with the power of Forgiveness & patience Hence Jesus says I am the Door through which one can come to his father, there is no other way, and once jesus had done all that God wanted him to, God accepted him as his son, the one who obeyed his command. The perfect Son…
to continue…
there is a mistake in your understanding -

Lord Jesus isn’t an Angel …He was very clear that he was God incarnate. See for example the answer Lord Jesus gives to the Pharisees - See John 8:58
Jesus said to them, "Amen, amen, I say to you, before Abraham came to be, I AM
This answer I AM is a direct reference to Ex 3:13-14
“But,” said Moses to God, “when I go to the Israelites and say to them, ‘The God of your fathers has sent me to you,’ if they ask me, ‘What is his name?’ what am I to tell them?”
God replied, “I am who am.” Then he added, “This is what you shall tell the Israelites: I AM sent me to you.”
Also see John 18:5-6 and the response of the people present
They answered him, “Jesus the Nazorean.” 4 He said to them, “I AM.” Judas his betrayer was also with them.
When he said to them, “I AM,” they turned away and fell to the ground
Another thing - when creating the universe, God already knew Man would sin, even then God created everything. That’s why He is God - all knowing, all powerful. Also the promise of a savior was given in Genesis itself. God tell mankind -
See Gn 3:15
I will put I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and hers; He will strike at your head, while you strike at his heel."
The snake is the devil while the offspring of the woman is Jesus and the Church. As in all eastern countries, inheritance was through males only. In this case, God clearly says “her offspring” instead on “Adam’s offspring”. Now this is taken to be the first prophesy for the virgin born savior.

The Bible is the word of God, but the word of God has been made flesh also and Jesus has taken the church to be His body (Ephesians 4:4-13), so the teachings of the church are also a pointer to God.

Please try to read the two together - the Bible + the teachings of the Church - The Bible being the word of God and the church being the interpreter of the word of God directed from all time by the Holy Spirit.
 
Well mostly when I have doubts I ask Jesus to clear them for me & usually I get the reference for the same in the Bible, for what I have understood, Jesus was one of the favourite Angels of God, (The God of Abhraham), God after the flood (Noah) saw the destruction & stench on Earth promised that he will never ever cause such destruction again.but he also realised that Man will never stop sining, So he send Jesus on Earth as human (Now a spirit had to be manifested as human, this if u see cannot be done naturally, hence Mother Mary was blessed supernaturally & we call her Virgin Mary) Thus Jesus was sent with the power of Forgiveness & patience Hence Jesus says I am the Door through which one can come to his father, there is no other way, and once jesus had done all that God wanted him to, God accepted him as his son, the one who obeyed his command. The perfect Son…
to continue…
As a Catholic you cannot be believing this!

In the creed we recite every week at Mass it says Jesus was ‘eternally begotten’ and ‘begotten not made’ - all angels ARE made, they are creatures, and none of them were eternal, all had a definite date of creation. Jesus was no angel.

And it says Jesus is ‘of one BEING (the Latin original translates as ‘consubstantial’, ‘of one substance’) with the Father’. No creature is of one being or substance with God the Father. And also that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father and Jesus. If Jesus was only accepted as God’s son after His mission on earth, how is it that the Spirit (which proceeds from Him and the Father together) existed before creation when it was moving over the waters of earth? Clearly Jesus was the Son before creation.
 
lets get one thing straight here -

Jesus clearly says He is God. See my earlier post on this in this thread.

So we have a scenario where Jesus says He is God and we know God the father exists. So this brings us to the following conclusion -

a) we have two God-beings where neither is all powerful (since the other exists)

OR

b) the two God-beings are actually the same God in different forms.

We know there is only one God so we go with option (b).

Now Lord Jesus was both a priest and a King at the same time. See the notes on Rev 1:12-13 at the link
and in the midst of the lampstands one like a son of man, wearing an ankle-length robe, with a gold sash around his chest
As priest, he is our mediator with God the Father. Thus he prays for us - “Forgive them Father for they know not what they do”

As king, he is our judge with the power given to him by God the Father.

As since he is one with God anyway, he had the power from all time from the beginning. The three persons of the trinity have always referred to each other this way. When they communicate to each other we get a glimpse of the Trinity

Also one more thing - Jesus was both fully god and fully man at the same time. So your quote -
(meaning to me that he is exalted back to his original Being or existence as God),
isn’t right.

He was glorified by being the sacrificial lamb which was the cost of all our sins (past and future). When he finished the work on the cross he went back to the Father with his earthly body During his time on earth, he was still God, he was still listening to peoples prayers and requests (referring to the miracles) and he was walking among us.

Now back to the JW - It is clear in scripture that when the 3 persons of the trinity talk about each other, they always refer to themselves as Father, Son and the Holy Spirit. Father being God, Son being the Word of God which is God itself and the Holy Spirit which is the spirit of God, again God Himself. As Catholics we refer to the entirety of scripture and sacred tradition to come to an understanding of God’s message. If the JWs want to take one verse and ignore all the others throughout scripture and the sacred tradition, then there is nothing we can do about it other than pray that someday they see the real Bible and God shows them the beauty of the fullness of revelation in the Catholic Church

To go with another analogy which someone told me -

as a person, when you speak, words come out. People refer to your sentences as “She said so and so”. So the words are yours and have no existence outside of you. Even if written in a book, it would be your words

Similarly, God’s Word is God itself. There was something similar about the Holy Spirit, but I have forgotten it - it was along the lines of the Holy Spirit is the love between the Father and the Son. And love by itself doesn’t exist. It only exists in relation to a person. So God’s love is God itself which is the Holy Spirit.

Hope this helps.
 
Thanks, Daniel. Your (name removed by moderator)ut is very interesting but I still don’t understand why the Revelation of St. John had to originate with the Father and be given through Jesus to his angel who appeared to John. It’s similar to the Father creating everything through Jesus. What exactly does that mean. Acc. to JWs, which I do realize is not the church Jesus founded, the plan originated with the Father and Jesus(after being created by the Father) was the craftsman (the one authorized to create, so to speak). They claim God gave him the power to do this which seems absurd to me because all God has to do is speak a command and it is created! When speaking about the Objective genitive in Greek, would it be correct to assume that Jesus could have just as easily given the Revelation to the Father? If Subjective genitive, the rank issue still is confusing to me because why would the Revelation have to be given to Jesus if God (Jesus) knows everything??
Also regarding Wolfwredroses’ comment, I have never heard Phil2:6 stated that way-“who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God”–that seems to give the opposite meaning than the translation (in NAB &NWT too) which says–“Who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped”. Thanks.
Oh, thats easy, God the Father put that in his power or authority, this is simply part of God the Father’s role. God the Son had the role of redemmer or giving himself in atonement for us, God the Spirit has the role of sanctifier of the saints. Basically, all three members of the godhead or trinity are equal in nature, but via volunteer type rank, each has different roles. God the Father did not become human to die on the cross for us, nor did the Holy Spirit, although all three would be represented in Jesus’ divine nature.

Acts 1

6When they therefore were come together, they asked of him, saying, Lord, wilt thou at this time restore again the kingdom to Israel?

7And he said unto them, It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father hath put in his own power.

Matthew 24:36
The Day and Hour Unknown ] "No one knows about that day or hour, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.

Jehovah’s Witnesses confuse role or rank with nature. All three members of the Trinity are equal in nature, but there is a rank of Father, Son and Holy Spirit. The Son proceeds from the Father and the Holy Spirit proceeds from both the Father and Son.

The Biblical Basis of the
Doctrine of the Trinity:
An Outline Study

By Robert M. Bowman, Jr.

spotlightministries.org.uk/bowmanonthetrinity.htm

The President of the US, A General in the Army and a Private all have different ranks, but all three are still just human. If you followed JW logic in this situation, then one would be saying that both a General and Private are not human because they don’t have the same authority as the President of the US, who is Commander and Cheif of the Arm forces. Making such an argument is just plain silly.

Concerning Phil 2:6 JW’s quote from Jason BeDuhn who uses Liddell-Scott Greek Lexicon to say that this text could mean Jesus is trying to grasp or take something that he does not already possess or own ---- Liddell-Scott also says it could mean he is holding on to what he already has. Read the PDF at the thread below. BeDuhn is extermely bias and ignores Liddell-Scott Greek Lexicon on the phrase “being in the form of God” which can only have the meaning that Jesus is God or Jesus possesses divinity. If you look at the part the JW’s want to emphasize while ignoring the plain part of the text one can become confused and think they may be on to something. But, if you look at the full context of the text,

Philippians 2:5-11 (Contemporary English Version)

5and think the same way that Christ Jesus thought: 6 **Christ was truly God. **

But he did not try to remain equal with God the Father ].
Code:
7Instead he gave up everything  and became a slave,
when he became

like one of us.
Code:
8Christ was humble.
He obeyed God

and even died

on a cross.
Code:
9Then God gave Christ
the **highest place **

and honored his name

above all others.
Code:
10So at the name of Jesus
everyone will bow down,

those in heaven, on earth,

and under the earth.
Code:
11And to the glory
of God the Father

everyone will openly agree,

“Jesus Christ is Lord!”

forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=251327

If you read Phil 2, in context the JW interpretation makes no sense at all. First, we have the phrase which says clearly that the Son of God was in the “form of God” or “is God”, then the text goes on to say he did not try to hold onto his place of authority in heaven, but BECAME a human to give himself in atonement in our place. Then God the Father exhalted the Son of God, Jesus back to his place of rank.

Now, lets look at the JW picture, ignore the fact that the Son of God has the “form of God”, claim that the Son tried to become God, but instead became human, made atonement and then God the Father made Jesus what? God? or equal with God the Father in nature?

Basically, in many of the works of God, each member has a role. Their role is related to rank, not nature. At creation, God the Father worked through God the Son, The Holy Spirit was present, he was the wind or spirit that hoovered over the waters.

JW’s confuse role or rank with nature. If they did this with the President of the US, a General and a Private, they would by their logic be claiming that the General and Private are NOT human.

If the Son of God tried to become God when was not, he would have disqualified himself from being the Lamb of God without spot or wrinkle. Trying to lift oneself up to godhood ( see Isaiah 14 this was Satan’s error ) is Sin.

Verse five sets the tone of the text, “have this mindset of humility in yourself, following the example of the Son of God”.

Exactly, how is trying to become a god equate to being “humble”?

:rolleyes:
 
Isaiah 14:12-14 (King James Version)

12How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! how art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations!

13For thou hast said in thine heart, I will ascend into heaven, I will exalt my throne above the stars of God: I will sit also upon the mount of the congregation, in the sides of the north:

14I will ascend above the heights of the clouds; I will be like the most High.

Was “Lucifer” here being humble or prideful?

Phil 2:5-11 is about being humble. If Jesus tried to become God like Lucifier above it would be Sin. If the Son of God choose not to hold unto what he had, the rank of God and became a servant, that is being humble and fits the context of the text.
 
Heb 8:12
For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more.

Heb 10:17
And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more.

Isaiah 43:25
"I, even I, am he who blots out your transgressions, for my own sake, and remembers your sins no more.

Jeremiah 31:34
No longer will a man teach his neighbor, or a man his brother, saying, ‘Know the LORD,’ because they will all know me, from the least of them to the greatest," declares the LORD. “For I will forgive their wickedness and will remember their sins no more.”

Ezekiel 33:16
None of the sins he has committed will be remembered against him. He has done what is just and right; he will surely live.

Hebrews 8:12
For I will forgive their wickedness and will remember their sins no more."

Hebrews 10:17
Then he adds: “Their sins and lawless acts I will remember no more.”

In the above texts God the Father chooses to forget the sins of those who have repented of their sins. Below God chooses to remember the sins of those who refuse to repent.

Hosea 9:9
They have sunk deep into corruption, as in the days of Gibeah. God will remember their wickedness and punish them for their sins.

These texts demonstrate that God the Father can choose to limit his knowledge. So, it makes sense that God the Son can choose to limit his knowledge too.
 
Well thanks for enlightening me but I am afraid you still dont fill me with confidence, I have to understand things with substantial backing, not some abstract words thrown around, like when I saw the movie ST Peter & how Peter was cucified in Rome, I immediately related that to the Pillar in front of St Peter’s Church in Vatican as the place where the crucification took place, and the verses " You are the rock on which I shall build my congregation. I always pondered the Jews have undergone ages of hatred & suffering but what about the romans, so here was my annswer the great Rome was destroyed by Barbarians, which other country has a country within a country (Vatian) and the Vatican has 2.2 billion believers,
So no offence but I like ur (name removed by moderator)uts only if I can relate it to facts…
lets get one thing straight here -

Jesus clearly says He is God. See my earlier post on this in this thread.

So we have a scenario where Jesus says He is God and we know God the father exists. So this brings us to the following conclusion -

a) we have two God-beings where neither is all powerful (since the other exists)

OR

b) the two God-beings are actually the same God in different forms.

We know there is only one God so we go with option (b).

Now Lord Jesus was both a priest and a King at the same time. See the notes on Rev 1:12-13 at the link

As priest, he is our mediator with God the Father. Thus he prays for us - “Forgive them Father for they know not what they do”

As king, he is our judge with the power given to him by God the Father.

As since he is one with God anyway, he had the power from all time from the beginning. The three persons of the trinity have always referred to each other this way. When they communicate to each other we get a glimpse of the Trinity

Also one more thing - Jesus was both fully god and fully man at the same time. So your quote -
isn’t right.

He was glorified by being the sacrificial lamb which was the cost of all our sins (past and future). When he finished the work on the cross he went back to the Father with his earthly body During his time on earth, he was still God, he was still listening to peoples prayers and requests (referring to the miracles) and he was walking among us.

Now back to the JW - It is clear in scripture that when the 3 persons of the trinity talk about each other, they always refer to themselves as Father, Son and the Holy Spirit. Father being God, Son being the Word of God which is God itself and the Holy Spirit which is the spirit of God, again God Himself. As Catholics we refer to the entirety of scripture and sacred tradition to come to an understanding of God’s message. If the JWs want to take one verse and ignore all the others throughout scripture and the sacred tradition, then there is nothing we can do about it other than pray that someday they see the real Bible and God shows them the beauty of the fullness of revelation in the Catholic Church

To go with another analogy which someone told me -

as a person, when you speak, words come out. People refer to your sentences as “She said so and so”. So the words are yours and have no existence outside of you. Even if written in a book, it would be your words

Similarly, God’s Word is God itself. There was something similar about the Holy Spirit, but I have forgotten it - it was along the lines of the Holy Spirit is the love between the Father and the Son. And love by itself doesn’t exist. It only exists in relation to a person. So God’s love is God itself which is the Holy Spirit.

Hope this helps.
 
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