Why does Jesus say

[PennyinCanada]

Revelation 3:12 New International Version (NIV)

12 The one who is victorious I will make a pillar in the temple of my God. Never again will they leave it. I will write on them the name of my God and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem, which is coming down out of heaven from my God; and I will also write on them my new name.

It would be hard to understand if Jesus kept saying myself instead of my God.

 

[porthos11]

DIERM:

No.

The Father is God, but the Father is not the Son nor the Holy Spirit
The Son is God, but the Son is not the Father nor the Holy Spirit
The Holy Spirit is God, but the Holy Spirit is not the Father nor the Son.

Three people in one God, not three Gods.

You’re right, my explanation doesn’t make sense because it makes 3 Gods, not One.

And that is why this question is answered not from the standpoint of the Trinity but from that of the Hypostatic Union.

First of all, to correct a serious error: Each person of the Godhead is distinct but not separate. This is a crucial difference.

Second, Jesus is referring to the Father as “my God” because he does so in his humanity, not in his divinity. Subordinationism within the Godhead is a heresy.

 

[Arthur.k]

And that is why this question is answered not from the standpoint of the Trinity but from that of the Hypostatic Union.

First of all, to correct a serious error: Each person of the Godhead is distinct but not separate. This is a crucial difference.

Second, Jesus is referring to the Father as “my God” because he does so in his humanity, not in his divinity. Subordinationism within the Godhead is a heresy.

Thank you, but this is where I’m stuck because in Revelation is Jesus not in his divine form?

 

[Arthur.k]

After doing my own research on this I noticed something in John 20:28 , it says:
And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God

Seems like this may have something to do with it, since Thomas called Jesus “my God” written exactly how it’s written in that letter to Philadelphia.

Any comments?

 

[porthos11]

porthos11:

And that is why this question is answered not from the standpoint of the Trinity but from that of the Hypostatic Union.

First of all, to correct a serious error: Each person of the Godhead is distinct but not separate. This is a crucial difference.

Second, Jesus is referring to the Father as “my God” because he does so in his humanity, not in his divinity. Subordinationism within the Godhead is a heresy.

Thank you, but this is where I’m stuck because in Revelation is Jesus not in his divine form?

It’s not about form. Jesus is not a Transformer. He is fully God and fully man. When Jesus comes at the end of time, he will be fully God and fully man…

Jesus is fully God and fully man in Revelation 3:12. As man, he can always refer to God as “my God.”

 

[Arthur.k]

It’s not about form. Jesus is not a Transformer. He is fully God and fully man. When Jesus comes at the end of time, he will be fully God and fully man…

Jesus is fully God and fully man in Revelation 3:12. As man, he can always refer to God as “my God.”

Ahh ok, yes that makes sense. He does appear to John in revelation As Man. Thank you for clearing this up for me, don’t know why I didn’t see it to begin with.

Thanks again

 

[AlbMagno]

Jesus is not a Transformer

This is obviously (not) true. However, if He alternates between “human” speech and “Divine” speech as theologians often say when talking about these passages, then He seems at least to have two “monikers” or modes of speech.

The incertitude of the OP, I think, is determing where Jesus is speaking from a Divine perspective and when He is talking from a human perspective.

While I am Catholic and I believe in the Hypostatic Union, I must admit that I always found odd that when Jesus refers to the rest of the Trinity as God, the Church says that He is speaking humanely (like he has two modes of speaking, as I’ve said). It seems like a last resort to justify the Trinity when the other things don’t work…

 

[Arthur.k]

While I am Catholic and I believe in the Hypostatic Union, I must admit that I always found odd that when Jesus refers to the rest of the Trinity as God, the Church says that He is speaking humanely (like he has two modes of speaking, as I’ve said). It seems like a last resort to justify the Trinity when the other things don’t work…

It’s the only thing that works, because if you say Jesus isn’t God, than how do you explain all the passages explaining that he is?

The only reasoning and last resort I’ve heard in explaining that Jesus isn’t god, is that scripture has been corrupted. Which in my opinion is just a lazy excuse for not being able to find an answer

 

[Arthur.k]

If you want not to be accused of being a troll, you should stop posting the same question in different forms and not listening to the answers.

Thanks for your comment, I’ve replied to this question already earlier in this thread