Why does John represent the Church?

[SSJ]

Good day,

I have this question (from a friend) that is kind of bugging me recently.

Let me provide the context:

1. Jesus asked John to take Mary as his own mother in John 19:25-29.
   John (one person) then represents the entire Church of believers (a billion of persons). Mary becomes the Mother of the Church.
2. Jesus gave the authority to forgive sins to His apostles in John 20:23.
   The apostles (twelve persons) then specifically represent the ordained clergy (thousands of persons). Only the priests and bishops can exercise ecclesiastical authority.

How do we explain this representative discrepancy? Why can’t we interpret 20:23 the same way as in 19:25-29, or vice versa?

Thanks!

 

[OddBird]

Hi @SSJ, and welcome to the forums !

I think one way to broach that question would be to remember that, in st John’s gospel, John is actually never called “John”. He is called “the disciple whom Jesus loved”.

Now, of course, tradition identifies him for us, so we know it’s John.

But the fact that the gospel precisely chooses to call him in another way, not assigning him a name, opens the door for an additional reading level which is allegorical : “the disciple whom Jesus loved” can be anyone of us, too, since are we not all “the one whom He loves” ? In a way, “the disciple whom Jesus loved” is a figure of Christians, a figure of the Church. This is why this text in John 19:25-29 also is a scriptural basis for Mary as Mother of all believers.

On the other hand, in John 20:23, the people whom Jesus addresses are clearly identified : they are “the disciples” (John 20:19), which is, in the gospel of John, the way a particular group of persons, the apostles, are consistently designated, from the wedding in Cana onwards (“Jesus and his disciples were invited to a wedding…” John 2:2), which comes right after Jesus chooses and calls them by their names (John 1:35-51). It is much harder to read them, here, as a “type” of all Christians.

 

[PJM]

Very interesting question; thank you.

John 19:25-29 is speaking both literally (cf. Here IS your mother); and metaphorically (here is your son) who as you indicate represents all of humanity.

In John 20:19-23 Jesus is speaking directly and exclusively to His Apostles and by absolute necessity their successors (compare Mt. 10:1-8 to Mt. 28:19-20*)

We need to understand both the exclusivity and the inclusion intended by the author. When we do so both passages complement one another.

God Bless you

 

[Todd_Easton]

1. Compare John 19:25-29 with Revelation 12, where all (Christians) who keep the commandments and bear testimony to Jesus are referred to as offspring of the woman (Mary) who gave birth to the male child (Jesus) who was caught up to God and to God’s throne and who is destined to rule the world with a rod of iron. (For more on the identification of him (Jesus) who is to rule the world with an iron rod, see Revelation 19 where he is called Faithful and True, the Word of God, and the King of kings and Lord of lords.)
2. Compare John 20:23 with James 5:14-15, where sick Christians are told to send for the priests of the Church and they are to anoint and pray for the sick that they might be saved and their sins forgiven.

 

[ahs]

For part #1: recall Jesus didn’t say, “Woman here is John; John here is your mother”. He said “son…son”. Thus, John represents the “offspring” , as it were, of Christ’s sacrifice and the end result of Mary’s “yes”…that offspring is the Church. John represents the children of the Church…and Mary is its Mother.