Why does Matthew differ from the account of Mark and Luke in the story of the demoniac?

[iaskquestions]

“And when he came to the other side, to the country of the Gadarenes, **two demoniacs **met him, coming out of the tombs, so fierce that no one could pass that way.” (Matthew 8:28)

“They came to the other side of the sea, to the country of the Ger’asenes. And when he had come out of the boat, there met him out of the tombs **a man **with an unclean spirit.” (Mark 5:1-2)

"Then they arrived at the country of the Ger’asenes, which is opposite Galilee. And as he stepped out on land, there met him **a man **from the city who had demons; for a long time he had worn no clothes, and he lived not in a house but among the tombs. " (Luke 8:26-27)

Matthew 8:28 says that there were two demoniacs, whereas Mark 5:2 and Luke 8:27 says that there was **only one demoniac. **

Now Gadarenes (mentioned in Matthew) is probably the **same place as Gerasenes **(mentioned in Mark and Luke) according to the footnotes in my NRSV bible. Also, all of the three accounts must be **talking of the same incident **since they all state that Jesus later allowed the demons to enter into the herd of swine (Matthew 8:32, Mark 5:13, Luke 8:33).

Could somebody explain?

 

[thistle]

“And when he came to the other side, to the country of the Gadarenes, **two demoniacs **met him, coming out of the tombs, so fierce that no one could pass that way.” (Matthew 8:28)

“They came to the other side of the sea, to the country of the Ger’asenes. And when he had come out of the boat, there met him out of the tombs **a man **with an unclean spirit.” (Mark 5:1-2)

"Then they arrived at the country of the Ger’asenes, which is opposite Galilee. And as he stepped out on land, there met him **a man **from the city who had demons; for a long time he had worn no clothes, and he lived not in a house but among the tombs. " (Luke 8:26-27)

Matthew 8:28 says that there were two demoniacs, whereas Mark 5:2 and Luke 8:27 says that there was only one demoniac.

Now Gadarenes (mentioned in Matthew) is probably the **same place as Gerasenes **(mentioned in Mark and Luke) according to the footnotes in my NRSV bible. Also, all of the three accounts must be **talking of the same incident **since they all state that Jesus later allowed the demons to enter into the herd of swine (Matthew 8:32, Mark 5:13, Luke 8:33).

Could somebody explain?

That’s not correct.

Luke 8:27 When he came ashore a man from the town who was possessed by demons met him. For a long time he had not worn clothes; he did not live in a house, but lived among the tombs.

Demons is plural.

 

[iaskquestions]

That’s not correct.

Luke 8:27 When he came ashore a man from the town who was possessed by demons met him. For a long time he had not worn clothes; he did not live in a house, but lived among the tombs.

Demons is plural.

**One man **can have **several demons **inside him. Please read it carefully. It says, **one man **with demons.

 

[SpiritMeadow]

I didn’t find much of an answer,but perhaps a clue. It seems that Mark’s location was suspect and that is why it is different than Matthews. Matthew seemed to have changed it since the more accurate name given by Mk doesn’t comport topologically with any cliffs which the swine then go over. It may be that matthew is either cleaning up what he thought was an error in Mark and simply changed the story so it would not be so glaring. Or they may have relied on two different renditions, either written or oral of the event. It’s not much help, I know, but Joel Markus, a fairly well regarded expert on Mark makes no mention of the difference in his analysis of Mark except to point out the location problem.

 

[thistle]

D-R Bible, Haydock Commentary:

Matthew 8:28. Two that were possessed with devils. St. Mark (chap. v.) and St. Luke (chap. viii.), in the same passage, mentions but one man, who is also said to be possessed with a legion of devils. Those evangelists seem to make mention only of one of them, because he might be much more fierce and famous than the other. (Witham) — These sepulchres were caverns excavated in the rocks, which served them as places of retreat. (Bible de Vence)

Mark 5:2. Ven. Bede gives a beautiful explanation of this miracle. He says that it represents the Gentiles, who were converted to the faith by the apostles. The legion represents the innumerable vices to which they were subject, neither restrained by the laws of God nor man, but breaking through every restraint, and wallowing in all kinds of uncleanness. (Ven. Bede) — The three evangelists agree in the expulsion of the legion of devils, except that St. Matthew makes mention of two demoniacs, and Sts. Mark and Luke only of one. The difficulty is thus solved by St. Augustine. St. Mark and St. Luke only mention one, as being more generally known, and particularly frightful in the neighbourhood. (St. Augustine)

 

[rcjones]

Some observations:

1. When different people observe and relate the same event, they take notice of, and make a point of different things based upon their observational skills and the intent of sharing. Their differing views cannot be considered to be contradictory if plausible reasons exist for the difference.
2. Those relating only one demoniac do not say one and only one demoniac. It is plausible that since only one demoniac engaged in conversation, that two of the observers did not think it significant to mention the second, since it is a minor point to a larger picture.
3. In the shadows, the Bible is divided into three “testimonies”: that of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost. Each testimony has four voices: Prophet, priest, king and judge. Matthew was written to a chosen people about the “heavenly” kingdom of God and represents the priestly voice. Mark was written to a chosen people with the “earthly” voice and represents the judge. Luke was written to the earthly people about the earthly and represents the king. John was written to the earthly people and speaks of the heavenly things and represents the prophet.

The king and the judge both speak of the earthly and as such do not focus much on double meanings. The priestly mention of two demoniacs in Matthew means there are two meanings to the story. The first is the literal historical event. The second is pointed to by sequential parallels. The parallel passage is Matthew 5:20. The two demoniacs represent the scribes and the Pharisees. The demons knew who Jesus was, and the parallel confirms that the scribes and Pharisees did as well. But rather than submit to Christ, the demons would rather kill the pigs, just as the Pharisees and scribes would rather kill the one who would be made abominable by being made to be sin.

These things should be taken as observations and should be verified by your own studies.

 

[bogeydogg]

I agree with thistle, as St. Augustine said, the mention of two instead of one is an editorial choice of the author but does not necessarily mean that the stories conflict. Neither St. Luke nor St. Mark affirm that there was only one demoniac so they don’t preclude St. Matthew’s version and all three evangelists agree that there was one particularly violent demoniac who is the subject of amazement among the townspeople in all three accounts.

 

[iaskquestions]

D-R Bible, Haydock Commentary:

Those evangelists seem to make mention only of one of them, because he might be much more fierce and famous than the other.

The difficulty is thus solved by St. Augustine. St. Mark and St. Luke only mention one, as being more generally known, and particularly frightful in the neighbourhood.

Acceptable!

 

[marymol]

This incident is also explained as a ’ type’ for those who have chosen to make their own bodies into tombs and possession of evil spirits - prevalent in our own times through the sin of all foms of sexual immorality and such other sins as contraception and abortion !

Sexual immorality is thought to be an easy way for demonic bondages and all that come with it - the drinking and overeating to subdue the inner rage and depression , the seductiveness and nudity …the breaking of chains , and starting of wars …i

  The connection with the swine and greed and uncleanness  etc: also pretty obvious in both sitauions !

As to the two / one question, does not the Word say that ’ the two shall become one’ !

May be issues to think about in the next election when concerns for national security get focused on as to who is leading the nation into or away from tombs and wars !

May The Lord of Life walk in to the lives of those most in need !

 

[rcjones]

As to the two / one question, does not the Word say that ’ the two shall become one’ !
!

Here are the relevant verses:

Ge 2:24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.

Mt 19:6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.

1Co 6:16 What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.

Before we get too far. The literal says that marriage is good. But marriage is an activity of the flesh. Flesh is not evil. God created it good. But Eve was deceived to place the desires of the flesh above God’s commands.

Heb 13:4 Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge.

When two marry, they join their fleshy desires into one desire for each other. This is also a good thing. We wrestle against the flesh to overcome habitual and instinctive sin. When two marry who are alive in Christ, then they have ‘double teamed’ the flesh and only have one flesh to conquer.

When you marry outside the faith, the fleshly desires still merge, but as a pair you are more base. This is the mixing of earthly and fleshly that God detests.

Ge 34:16 Then will we give our daughters unto you, and we will take your daughters to us, and we will dwell with you, and we will become one people.

Read Luke in the spirit of what he says now:

Lk 20:34 And Jesus answering said unto them, The children of this world marry, and are given in marriage:
35 But they which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage:

Our flesh (children of this world) marries, but our spirit does not.

 

[patrick457]

“And when he came to the other side, to the country of the Gadarenes, **two demoniacs **met him, coming out of the tombs, so fierce that no one could pass that way.” (Matthew 8:28)

“They came to the other side of the sea, to the country of the Ger’asenes. And when he had come out of the boat, there met him out of the tombs **a man **with an unclean spirit.” (Mark 5:1-2)

"Then they arrived at the country of the Ger’asenes, which is opposite Galilee. And as he stepped out on land, there met him **a man **from the city who had demons; for a long time he had worn no clothes, and he lived not in a house but among the tombs. " (Luke 8:26-27)

Matthew 8:28 says that there were two demoniacs, whereas Mark 5:2 and Luke 8:27 says that there was **only one demoniac. **

Now Gadarenes (mentioned in Matthew) is probably the **same place as Gerasenes **(mentioned in Mark and Luke) according to the footnotes in my NRSV bible. Also, all of the three accounts must be **talking of the same incident **since they all state that Jesus later allowed the demons to enter into the herd of swine (Matthew 8:32, Mark 5:13, Luke 8:33).

Could somebody explain?

The incident could be the same one; while there are two separate cities named Gadara and Gerasa (aka Gergesa, present-day Jerash), Jesus may have went in the region somewhere between these two cities. Back then Gadara was the capital city of the Roman province of Perea and the chief of the ten cities in Decapolis; thus residents of Gerasa could have also been easily called Gadarenes (the region of Gadara may have also extended as far as Galilee, based on a stamp of a ship on Gadarene coins). Or Gerasa was simply a scribal error handed down through manuscripts.

I’m more of an adherent of Matthean Priority than the more popular Markan one when talking about the Synoptic Problem. I believe Matthew and Luke wrote their Gospels at about the same time as the other and could have influenced each other’s writing; later, Mark then intended to write a Gospel of his own and was influenced or even used these two works as some of his source, producing the Gospel of Mark.

So, it leads me to think that:

Matthew wrote about two men possessed by demons in the region (not necessarily the city) of Gadara. Luke, in an editorial decision, decided to drop one of the two demoniacs mentioned, focusing on the more well-known one, and changed the name of the location to the more famous city of Gerasa so his Gentile audience could p(name removed by moderator)oint the location more exactly.

When Mark wrote his Gospel, he followed Luke at this point of the story (Mark’s text agrees with Luke more than it agrees with Matthew), thus his mention of only one demoniac in the country of Gerasa. Even so, Luke’s and Mark’s account does not contradict Matthew’s mention of two possessed men.