J
Jehoshua
Guest
I think the difference between the west in the east in this case is that the west has had to deal with a persistent heresy that denies fundamentals like the real presence. Whereas in the east heresies of similar disbelief fell long ago with the remainder of the heresies still holding to these fundamentals, thus they didn;t require the further definitions that the west has put in place.
Ill try not to start a flame war on papal infallibility but its a logical step building on infallibility of the church. If the pope pronounces something on faith and morals this infallibility of the church kicks in because otherwise we would be led into doctrinal error. Now of course the pope pronounces things offically extremely rarely and everything else he says is perfectly fallible but I think what confuses people is that they think everything he says is fallible which is not true. (Not saying that most people here understand the actual doctrine) But it to me is not really a development of infallibility of the church but a defining of this same doctrine in a specific circumstance. It is understandable though too an eastern view how this may be troublesome considering the different organisational structures.
As to the filioque you must remember that the greek filioque in the Catholic Church does not have the filioque because due to differences in the precise meaning of words (omnipotens = all-powerful vs pantokrator = ruler of all: for example) it is considered to be heretical to put the filioque in the greek. Thus you can see that due to this linguistic confusion that its quite possible that the inclusion in latin was not normalised earlier precisely due to this confusion, even though it is maintained that in the latin the filioque is by no means heretical but due to the fact that in the greek it would be abject heresy.
No need to be sorry
of course if you believe something your not going to say “oh but your beliefs are perfectly fine too” that would be the heresy of relativism. Of course to me the doctrines are the valid further defining of doctrine, but you can hold your view its my (and others) job to try and show you that it is a valid defining and deepening of the doctrine both east and west universally believes.
Ill try not to start a flame war on papal infallibility but its a logical step building on infallibility of the church. If the pope pronounces something on faith and morals this infallibility of the church kicks in because otherwise we would be led into doctrinal error. Now of course the pope pronounces things offically extremely rarely and everything else he says is perfectly fallible but I think what confuses people is that they think everything he says is fallible which is not true. (Not saying that most people here understand the actual doctrine) But it to me is not really a development of infallibility of the church but a defining of this same doctrine in a specific circumstance. It is understandable though too an eastern view how this may be troublesome considering the different organisational structures.
As to the filioque you must remember that the greek filioque in the Catholic Church does not have the filioque because due to differences in the precise meaning of words (omnipotens = all-powerful vs pantokrator = ruler of all: for example) it is considered to be heretical to put the filioque in the greek. Thus you can see that due to this linguistic confusion that its quite possible that the inclusion in latin was not normalised earlier precisely due to this confusion, even though it is maintained that in the latin the filioque is by no means heretical but due to the fact that in the greek it would be abject heresy.
No need to be sorry