Why does the Church convalidate invalid marriages?

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If one of the parties to a marriage is Catholic, the Church only recognizes a marriage as valid if it follows canonical form or they receive a dispensation. If a Catholic couple is civilly married, the Church does not consider them married as far as I understand.

Why then does the Church convalidate their marriage instead of just marrying them directly? If there was no marriage, how is it different from an unmarried Catholic couple getting married?
 
If one of the parties to a marriage is Catholic, the Church only recognizes a marriage as valid if it follows canonical form or they receive a dispensation. If a Catholic couple is civilly married, the Church does not consider them married as far as I understand.

Why then does the Church convalidate their marriage instead of just marrying them directly? If there was no marriage, how is it different from an unmarried Catholic couple getting married?
We convalidate their marriage because we want it to be legitimate. If the only impediment to the marriage was form (being married outside the Church without a dispensation), then there’s no reason not to convalidate it. They sinned in their actions, but we’d much rather regularize the marriage and allow them to morally live as husband and wife than artificially exclude them because they didn’t do it right the first time.

Or are you wondering specifically why we convalidate instead of holding another marriage ceremony, I believe it is because the ceremony is not what’s important, it is the vows and intention that are important. During convalidation, those vows are renewed in the proper setting (witnessed by a priest in the presence of Christ in the Eucharist); so the core necessities for the marriage are fulfilled.

Also, you seem to be implying that non-Catholic marriages are not valid. So long as there are none of the moral impediments to marriage present (such as one of them already being married to another person), then we believe they would fall under the category of natural marriage, and therefore be perfectly legitimate.
 
We convalidate their marriage because we want it to be legitimate. If the only impediment to the marriage was form (being married outside the Church without a dispensation), then there’s no reason not to convalidate it. They sinned in their actions, but we’d much rather regularize the marriage and allow them to morally live as husband and wife than artificially exclude them because they didn’t do it right the first time.

Or are you wondering specifically why we convalidate instead of holding another marriage ceremony, I believe it is because the ceremony is not what’s important, it is the vows and intention that are important. During convalidation, those vows are renewed in the proper setting (witnessed by a priest in the presence of Christ in the Eucharist); so the core necessities for the marriage are fulfilled.

Also, you seem to be implying that non-Catholic marriages are not valid. So long as there are none of the moral impediments to marriage present (such as one of them already being married to another person), then we believe they would fall under the category of natural marriage, and therefore be perfectly legitimate.
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Why then does the Church convalidate their marriage instead of just marrying them directly? If there was no marriage, how is it different from an unmarried Catholic couple getting married?
A simple convalidation IS a marriage ceremony. If you attended a convalidation celebrated within Mass you would see no difference between that and a regular wedding.

It’s true that a couple may opt to have their convalidation in a simple ceremony with only their witnesses and the priest present – that’s what my friends did in a simple 10 minute ceremony after Mass one Sunday. But couples who are having a regular marriage can opt for that too. The exchange of consent in front of the priest and witnesses is all that is required.
 
A simple convalidation IS a marriage ceremony. If you attended a convalidation celebrated within Mass you would see no difference between that and a regular wedding.

It’s true that a couple may opt to have their convalidation in a simple ceremony with only their witnesses and the priest present – that’s what my friends did in a simple 10 minute ceremony after Mass one Sunday. But couples who are having a regular marriage can opt for that too. The exchange of consent in front of the priest and witnesses is all that is required.
Oh, I didn’t know that. So there’s no difference whatsoever in how it is handled? Just that there’s a different name attached?
 
Oh, I didn’t know that. So there’s no difference whatsoever in how it is handled? Just that there’s a different name attached?
Pretty much. The couple still has to do the prenuptial investigation (all the paperwork), get a dispensation or permission if one spouse is not Catholic, do marriage preparation (how much may depend on the parish, the diocese and the length of the civil marriage) just as they would for a “regular” wedding.
 
Why then does the Church convalidate their marriage instead of just marrying them directly?
Convalidation is marrying them directly.
 
Convalidation is marrying them directly.
I don’t mean to be obtuse, but why is there a separate word for it at all? Why doesn’t the Church refer to it simply as being married?

I guess I’m trying to understand if the Church considers there to be a difference between being “unmarried” and being “invalidly married” or if those two states are the same.
 
I don’t mean to be obtuse, but why is there a separate word for it at all? Why doesn’t the Church refer to it simply as being married?
Like many things, this word comes from the Latin. It means to make valid (with). In Latin matrimonii convalidatione. It carries over into the English.

It is “being married” but it can take two forms. New exchange of consent (simple convalidation) or making the original consent valid without new exchange of consent (radical sanation).

Just as in civil law, legal terms have specific meaning and are sometimes different than “regular” speech, so too in Church law.
I guess I’m trying to understand if the Church considers there to be a difference between being “unmarried” and being “invalidly married” or if those two states are the same.
Canonically, they are they same. You are not married until you are validly married. Whether never married or invalidly married, you aren’t married. More precisely you are free to contract a marriage in the Church, you have no impediment of prior bond.

Civilly, they are different of course.
 
If one of the parties to a marriage is Catholic, the Church only recognizes a marriage as valid if it follows canonical form or they receive a dispensation. If a Catholic couple is civilly married, the Church does not consider them married as far as I understand.

Why then does the Church convalidate their marriage instead of just marrying them directly? If there was no marriage, how is it different from an unmarried Catholic couple getting married?
Hello,

Your instincts are on target. If we really want to get specific, technical and particular, Catholics who are in mere civil unions do not “convalidate their marriage.” Convalidation is for marriages that were, according to the law of the Church, presumed valid. In other words, there was a proper “form” for the exchange of consent. However, some fact was made known which made that presumption untenable. Civil unions are not presumed valid at any point.

Dan
 
Hello,

Your instincts are on target. If we really want to get specific, technical and particular, Catholics who are in mere civil unions do not “convalidate their marriage.” Convalidation is for marriages that were, according to the law of the Church, presumed valid. In other words, there was a proper “form” for the exchange of consent. However, some fact was made known which made that presumption untenable. Civil unions are not presumed valid at any point.

Dan
Interesting. Even priests don’t seem to differentiate, considering the number of “convalidation” entries you find in registers where you know the marriages being “convalidated” were those of Catholics married outside the Church (because that marriage is noted in the register) where there was no presumption of validity.

Which also brings up the question, how then can you have a convalidation by radical sanation of the civil marriage between a Catholic who wants to be in a valid marriage and a non-Catholic who thinks the marriage is already valid and won’t consent to a new exchange of consent? Oy, I’m getting a headache. 😉 That’s why you’re the canon lawyer and I’m not.
 
Interesting. Even priests don’t seem to differentiate, considering the number of “convalidation” entries you find in registers where you know the marriages being “convalidated” were those of Catholics married outside the Church (because that marriage is noted in the register) where there was no presumption of validity.

Which also brings up the question, how then can you have a convalidation by radical sanation of the civil marriage between a Catholic who wants to be in a valid marriage and a non-Catholic who thinks the marriage is already valid and won’t consent to a new exchange of consent? Oy, I’m getting a headache. 😉 That’s why you’re the canon lawyer and I’m not.
I suppose I should have been more technical, particular and specific and said that I was only talking about “simple convalidation.” Anyway, common parlance, pretty much across the board, is to refer to all of them as “convalidations” no matter what. At least that’s better than “getting my marriage blessed.”

I guess I might as well get into this a bit more. Part of the reason for the misuse of “convalidation” in this circumstance may be the fact that there wasn’t really any “official” commentary on what happens when a Catholic enters a civil union and then wants to marry in the Church–is that a simple convalidation according to the terms of c. 1160? It would seem so, since canon 1160 is in the section of the Code dealing with “simple convalidation.” That canon states:
A marriage which is null because of defect of form must be contracted anew in canonical form in order to become valid…
The key word there is “defect.” At times, that word is understood to be equivalent to “absence” as in canon 1095.2 which addresses a “grave defect in discretion of judgment.” That “defect” is, in actuality, an absence of discretion. At other times, it is understood to mean that something is there but it is not complete. A “defect” of marital consent can be an intention against children; but other than that, the person has proper, marital consent. Marital consent was not “absent.”

As far as “canonical form” is concerned, we always distinguish between a defect and an absence. If two Catholics exchange consent before two witnesses and a Catholic priest who does *not *have the faculty to assist at a marriage, that is a “defect” of form. If they go to the courthouse, that is an “absence” of form. Is canon 1160 meant to address both scenarios?

For a while, even among some high-level canon lawyers, the answer was “yes.” In 2005, the Apostolic Signatura issued a clarifying statement and a subsequent decision of the Rota made it clear that c. 1160 should be understood to refer to a “defect”, strictly speaking. A total lack of canonical form is remedied by a marriage in the Church and not a “simple convalidation.”

Regarding sanation–yes, that throws another wrinkle into the situation. A “civil union” is a non-existent marriage in canon law not because of a problem with the actual consent of the Parties but because of a problem with how they expressed it. The Church can decide how that “ineffective” expression of consent can be recognized. The legal system of the Church is independent from the civil law. Both systems, though, can chose when to accept “facts” from the other system. Adoption, for instance, is an entirely civil process/fact which the Church choses to accept and make her own.

As for “civil unions”, then, there is no question that it is legally possible for the Church to allow that “juridically ineffective” expression of consent be recognized/validated by an act of the proper authority in the Church. It is also pastorally useful since, as you note, it is common for the non-Catholic Party to think that there is no point in another wedding. The non-Catholic actually has some justification in that: again, the Church thinks that the consent of the Parties was, in itself, proper. If the consent they expressed was not appropriate/actual, there could be no sanation (cf. c. 1162.1).

In practice, this use of terminology makes no difference to the people involved. They’ll “get married” according to canonical form no matter what term is used (“church marriage”, “convalidation”, “blessing”). As a matter of fact, though, proper terminology leads to proper understanding and that leads to proper practice. Personally, I’d be happy if we never used “blessing” again. I can at least palate the (improper) use of “convalidation.”

Dan
 
I suppose I should have been more technical, particular and specific and said that I was only talking about “simple convalidation.” Anyway, common parlance, pretty much across the board, is to refer to all of them as “convalidations” no matter what. At least that’s better than “getting my marriage blessed.”
Much better.
As far as “canonical form” is concerned, we always distinguish between a defect and an absence. If two Catholics exchange consent before two witnesses and a Catholic priest who does *not *have the faculty to assist at a marriage, that is a “defect” of form. If they go to the courthouse, that is an “absence” of form. Is canon 1160 meant to address both scenarios?
For a while, even among some high-level canon lawyers, the answer was “yes.” In 2005, the Apostolic Signatura issued a clarifying statement and a subsequent decision of the Rota made it clear that c. 1160 should be understood to refer to a “defect”, strictly speaking. A total lack of canonical form is remedied by a marriage in the Church and not a “simple convalidation.”
So until ~10 years ago using “convalidation” for both was understandable.

BTW, do you have a link to the dubium that clarified long ago that a putative marriage can only be one which is celebrated in the Church according to form? I used to have it but can not find it any more.
Regarding sanation–yes, that throws another wrinkle into the situation. A “civil union” is a non-existent marriage in canon law not because of a problem with the actual consent of the Parties but because of a problem with how they expressed it. The Church can decide how that “ineffective” expression of consent can be recognized. The legal system of the Church is independent from the civil law. Both systems, though, can chose when to accept “facts” from the other system. Adoption, for instance, is an entirely civil process/fact which the Church choses to accept and make her own.
As for “civil unions”, then, there is no question that it is legally possible for the Church to allow that “juridically ineffective” expression of consent be recognized/validated by an act of the proper authority in the Church. It is also pastorally useful since, as you note, it is common for the non-Catholic Party to think that there is no point in another wedding. The non-Catholic actually has some justification in that: again, the Church thinks that the consent of the Parties was, in itself, proper. If the consent they expressed was not appropriate/actual, there could be no sanation (cf. c. 1162.1).
In practice, this use of terminology makes no difference to the people involved. They’ll “get married” according to canonical form no matter what term is used (“church marriage”, “convalidation”, “blessing”). As a matter of fact, though, proper terminology leads to proper understanding and that leads to proper practice. Personally, I’d be happy if we never used “blessing” again. I can at least palate the (improper) use of “convalidation.”
Thanks for the explanation. If I had my life to do over again I think I would opt for theology and canon law instead of nursing (which I ended up not using for more than 2 years).
 

BTW, do you have a link to the dubium that clarified long ago that a putative marriage can only be one which is celebrated in the Church according to form? I used to have it but can not find it any more. …
I can give a link to the Latin, here, at page 158: vatican.va/archive/aas/documents/AAS-41-1949-ocr.pdf

I can give an English translation and a source: "The Code Commission was asked: Whether the word *celebratum *of canon 1015.4 is to be understood only of a marriage celebrated before the Church. Reply: in the affirmative. (Canon Law Digest, v. 3, p. 405).

Canon 1061.3 of the 1983 Code corresponds to canon 1015.4 of the 1917 Code. So, this response is still applicable.

Dan
 
I can give a link to the Latin, here, at page 158: vatican.va/archive/aas/documents/AAS-41-1949-ocr.pdf

I can give an English translation and a source: "The Code Commission was asked: Whether the word *celebratum *of canon 1015.4 is to be understood only of a marriage celebrated before the Church. Reply: in the affirmative. (Canon Law Digest, v. 3, p. 405).

Canon 1061.3 of the 1983 Code corresponds to canon 1015.4 of the 1917 Code. So, this response is still applicable.

Dan
Thanks. On a totally unrelated topic, I stumbled upon a November 1951 Times article that talked about a recent Vatican statement regarding whale and other water mammals being non-meat for the purpose of Friday abstinence. I searched the AAS from 1951 and 1952 but could find no record of such a statement. Any idea where it could be found?
 
Thanks. On a totally unrelated topic, I stumbled upon a November 1951 Times article that talked about a recent Vatican statement regarding whale and other water mammals being non-meat for the purpose of Friday abstinence. I searched the AAS from 1951 and 1952 but could find no record of such a statement. Any idea where it could be found?
I looked in my usual sources and found nothing. I did find some news articles about it and so my impression is that it was a verbal statement of somebody “at the Vatican” but, since it was not an official response to an actual “dubium”, it was never published in any authoritative manner.

The common opinion was that anything that lives *in *the water, even if not cold-blooded, is “fair game” on Friday. The Vatican official, whomever he was, was restating this common opinion just for informational purposes and not in order to make an authoritative ruling.

Dan
 
I looked in my usual sources and found nothing. I did find some news articles about it and so my impression is that it was a verbal statement of somebody “at the Vatican” but, since it was not an official response to an actual “dubium”, it was never published in any authoritative manner.

The common opinion was that anything that lives *in *the water, even if not cold-blooded, is “fair game” on Friday. The Vatican official, whomever he was, was restating this common opinion just for informational purposes and not in order to make an authoritative ruling.

Dan
This article seems to confirm your impression.
arc.stparchive.com/Archive/ARC/ARC11301951p02.php
 
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