Why does the legality of an action have any effect on whether it is a sin or not?

[Homerun]

Many cite the illegality of marijuana use as the primary reason as to why it is sinful. Shouldn’t the Universal Church’s jurisdiction on morality precede that of state laws? I just find it troubling that an action could be a sin if performed in country A but not in country B. Why isn’t the sinfulness of an action based on it’s inherent moral character? If the government outlawed watching television, would this be a sin? Are illegal immigrants in an ongoing, perpetual state of mortal sin solely by virtue of being illegal?

 

[bmullins]

Romans 13:1-2 1Let every soul be subject to higher powers: for there is no power but from God: and those that are, are ordained of God. 2Therefore he that resisteth the power, resisteth the ordinance of God. And they that resist, purchase to themselves damnation.

We are supposed to follow laws to the best of our ability(as long as they do not infringe on God’s law) because God has told us to. Besides, legality is not the primary reason Catholics avoid marijuana, they avoid it because the Catechism is specific on drugs.

2288 Life and physical health are precious gifts entrusted to us by God. We must take reasonable care of them, taking into account the needs of others and the common good.

Concern for the health of its citizens requires that society help in the attainment of living-conditions that allow them to grow and reach maturity: food and clothing, housing, health care, basic education, employment, and social assistance.

2289 If morality requires respect for the life of the body, it does not make it an absolute value. It rejects a neo-pagan notion that tends to promote the cult of the body, to sacrifice everything for its sake, to idolize physical perfection and success at sports. By its selective preference of the strong over the weak, such a conception can lead to the perversion of human relationships.

2290 The virtue of temperance disposes us to avoid every kind of excess: the abuse of food, alcohol, tobacco, or medicine. Those incur grave guilt who, by drunkenness or a love of speed, endanger their own and others’ safety on the road, at sea, or in the air.

2291 The use of drugs inflicts very grave damage on human health and life. Their use, except on strictly therapeutic grounds, is a grave offense. Clandestine production of and trafficking in drugs are scandalous practices. They constitute direct co-operation in evil, since they encourage people to practices gravely contrary to the moral law.

We are to avoid drugs, except for therapeutic grounds. Otherwise it’s a grave offense. The fact they are illegal means we also have to be concerned with ‘co-operation in evil… gravely contrary to the moral law.’ Even if they were legal, we still should only use them for medicine.

 

[Trishie]

From the Catechism of the Catholic Church, some guidelines:

vatican.va/archive/ENG0015/__P6J.HTM

 

[John21652]

Many cite the illegality of marijuana use as the primary reason as to why it is sinful.

Marijuana being made legal or illegal has nothing to do with whether it’s use is “sinful”. From a Catholic perspective, something is “sinful” if it separates us from God, or somehow harms our relationship with God. Therefore the question to be asked when we are trying to figure out whether marijuana use is sinful or not, is does it’s use in any way harm our relationship with God?

Those who suggest that because marijuana use is made illegal its use is now morally wrong are saying that because a law is in existence then it is necessarily morally right. That is not the case.

Marijuana usage will be morally right or morally wrong regardless of what the law says.

Shouldn’t the Universal Church’s jurisdiction on morality precede that of state laws? I just find it troubling that an action could be a sin if performed in country A but not in country B. Why isn’t the sinfulness of an action based on it’s inherent moral character? If the government outlawed watching television, would this be a sin? Are illegal immigrants in an ongoing, perpetual state of mortal sin solely by virtue of being illegal?

Catholicism does not have a list of behaviours that are “sins” in one country and not in another. What is a sin in one country is still a sin in another country according to Catholic moral doctrine, regardless of what a particular country’s laws may state.

As for whether or not the Church’s jurisdiction on morality precede that of the state, the answer is it depends upon how a state’s laws are framed. Take the illegality of marijuans: if it is a sin to use marijuana it is a sin no matter where a Catholic is. So, even if it is legal in a certain country, Church morality tells the Catholic its usage is sinful and so, regardless of what the law says, it cannot be used.

However, if a country passed a law which said everyone must use marijuana, then there is a conflict between the law and the Catholic Church’s morality. The law would be compelling you to do something which is immoral. So what should the Catholic do?

Trishie directed ou to the Catechism, so let’s look there…
At 1902 it says -

Authority does not derive its moral legitimacy from itself. It must not behave in a despotic manner, but must act for the common good as a “moral force based on freedom and a sense of responsibility”: A human law has the character of law to the extent that it accords with right reason, and thus derives from the eternal law. Insofar as it falls short of right reason it is said to be an unjust law, and thus has not so much the nature of law as of a kind of violence.

Note the reference to “eternal law” and the use of “right reason”. The Church’s moral edicts are predicated on Natural Law, which gives us objectively arrived at Moral Laws. Because they are objective is why they hold true across all legal jurisdictions. If laws are not based on “right reason”, are despotic in nature and conflict with the objective right and wrong of natural Law moral reasoning, then they are wrong law; “unjust”, as the Catechism describes them.

At 1904 the Catechism tells us "….the principle of the ‘rule of law,’ in which the law is sovereign and not the arbitrary will of men." is how we recognise good law. If the state you live in legalises marijuana, you use it and ypu sin, but it will be your choice. If the state forces you to use it, then you will be acting lawfully by using it, but sinning against the Moral Law.

That’s when it may be time to rebel!

 

[Whadyamean]

Many cite the illegality of marijuana use as the primary reason as to why it is sinful. Shouldn’t the Universal Church’s jurisdiction on morality precede that of state laws? I just find it troubling that an action could be a sin if performed in country A but not in country B. Why isn’t the sinfulness of an action based on it’s inherent moral character? If the government outlawed watching television, would this be a sin? Are illegal immigrants in an ongoing, perpetual state of mortal sin solely by virtue of being illegal?

Excellent! Thanks for asking!

 

[paduard]

It seems to me that the Catholic Church invokes the use of ‘right reason’; for example in ref.2290 above the expression “excess” is used - and quite rightly so for excess is a relative terms inasmuch as for some what is excess for them is not necessarily excess for another. Thus the Catechism in general turns on right-reason in my opinion.

 

[Michael19682]

Many cite the illegality of marijuana use as the primary reason as to why it is sinful. Shouldn’t the Universal Church’s jurisdiction on morality precede that of state laws? I just find it troubling that an action could be a sin if performed in country A but not in country B. Why isn’t the sinfulness of an action based on it’s inherent moral character? If the government outlawed watching television, would this be a sin? Are illegal immigrants in an ongoing, perpetual state of mortal sin solely by virtue of being illegal?

Though I greatly sympathize with the plight of illegals, I believe their ‘bad wrap’ in some quarters comes because of a law common to all who have at least some paycheck in America.

Luke 20:25
"So he said to them, “Then repay to Caesar what belongs to Caesar and to God what belongs to God.”

He was talking about money in that saying, which is a facet of the law in taxation. But in the capacity of an advocate for the illegals: 1) they are poor 2) all U.S. money says “In God We Trust”. So I suppose that as long as they give some kind of aid to their fellow poor in the form of money, then they are, as Jesus taught, giving to God what is due him? Ceasar in America apparently wants nothing to do with money.